2025~2026学年济南市”市中区“九年级英语第一学期期末考试试题以及答案

这是一份2025~2026学年济南市”市中区“九年级英语第一学期期末考试试题以及答案，共10页。
注意事项:
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用 0.5mm 黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力 （共四节，满分 30 分）
第一节 （共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A. I felt lucky t be alive. B. I’m trying t keep my cl. C. I think they’re fun t watch.
2.A. What d yu remember? B. Wh was it invented by? C. What did yu see that night?
3.A. Never talk t strangers! B. Dn’t use paper napkins. C. Dn’t be hard n yurself.
4.A. What a cl stry! B. Hw time flies! C. What a great jacket!
5.A. Did yu versleep? B. Can medicine help the king? C. D yu remember Mr. Hunt?
第二节 （共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What des Wang Lei d fr exercise every day?
A. Running. B. Swimming. C. Walking.
7. Hw des Peter mst likely feel nw?
A. Excited. B. Disappinted. C. Surprised.
8. What kind f music helps Linda relax?
A. Pp. B. Rck. C. Flk.
9. What des the man mean?
A. The wman shuld keep quiet.
B. The wman can talk t her friend first.
C. The wman shuldn’t fight with her friend.
10. What is Tina’s learning methd like?
A. Creative. B. Difficult. C. Bring.
第三节 （共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. Hw will Jiayi and Tianyu get t Daming Lake frm Quancheng Square?
A. By subway. B. By bus. C. By taxi.
12. What is the shw at Shandng Museum abut?
A. Mdern art. B. Jinan histry. C. Ancient inventins.
13. What fd will they try fr lunch?
A. Ba Zi Ru. B. Ht pt. C. Dumplings.
14. Why des Tianyu wrry abut the afternn trip?
A. It may snw. B. It may be crwded. C. It may be clsed.
15. What des Jiayi advise Tianyu t d with James?
A. Walk a lt. B. Speak English slwly. C. Just be himself.
第四节 （共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. What makes the new card lk different frm the nrmal ne?
A. It is a little thicker. B. It has a clr screen. C. It is big and heavy.
17. Where is the smart student ID card made?
A. In Jinan. B. In Shanghai. C. In Beijing.
18. Hw can the card help yu find a lst water bttle?
A. It calls the teacher. B. It makes the paper ring. C. It shws a map n the phne.
19. Hw many main uses f the card are mentined?
A. One. B. Tw. C. Three.
20. What des the head teacher think abut the smart card?
A. It’s t expensive. B. It’s just a ty. C. It makes life better.
第二部分 阅读 （共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解 （共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Tired f dry lips in winter? Cme t make yur wn hney lip balm (唇膏)!
Dry, uncmfrtable lips are cmmn in cld weather. Our free cmmunity class this Sunday will teach yu hw t make a natural, safe hney lip balm—a great gift t share with family.
Class infrmatin:
Time: 2:00 p.m. — 4:30 p.m., Sunday, February 1st
Place: Green Park Cmmunity Hall
Please nte:
♡ All materials (wax (蜡), hney, vegetable il) and tls will be prvided.
♡ There are nly 30 spts (位置) available.
♡ T bk yur spt, please call Anna at 678-912 by 6:00 p.m. n Saturday. Please have yur cmmunity rm number ready.
Fr thse wh want t try at hme, here are the steps:
★ Heat the wax and vegetable il in a small pt ver lw heat until they turn t liquid (液体).
★ Add tw spnfuls f hney and mix everything until smth.
★ Pur the warm mixture int clean small tubes (管状容器).
★ Let them cl fr 30 minutes. Yur lip balm is ready t use!
Jin us t make yur wn natural lip balm—fight winter dryness and take hme a sweet, useful gift!
21.When can peple call Anna t jin the class?
A. At 5:00 p.m. n Saturday. B. At 6:30 p.m. n Saturday.
C. At 2:00 p.m. n Sunday. D. At 4:30 p.m. n Sunday.
22.What d we knw abut the cmmunity lip balm class?
A. The class lasts fr 30 minutes. B. Over 30 peple can jin the class.
C. It is nly fr cmmunity members. D. Peple need t pay if they want t jin.
23.What des the text tell us abut the hmemade lip balm?
A. It’s made just fr the family t use.
B. It has a better taste than stre-bught nes.
C. It takes less than 30 minutes t make it at hme.
D. It wrks well n the prblem f dry winter lips.
24.Which is the crrect rder f making hney lip balm?
A. ①②③④ B. ①④②③ C. ①③②④ D. ③①②④
25.What’s the writer’s main purpse f writing this text?
A. T explain the reasns fr dry lips in winter.
B. T encurage peple t jin the cmmunity class.
C. T intrduce the histry f hney lip balm making.
D. T cmpare hmemade lip balm with stre-bught nes.
B
One day, a traveler frm India, a faraway cuntry, arrived in China. He brught a very large gift fr the emperr.
The gift was inside a huge wden bx. With the help f many wrkers, the bx was mved frm the ship t land. Everyne wndered what was inside, but the traveler nly smiled and said it was a surprise.
At the palace, the bx was pened. Out came a very big gray animal—an elephant. N ne in China had ever seen ne befre.
“My master sends this elephant t yu,” said the traveler. “He hpes that yu and he can becme gd friends.”
The emperr thanked the man fr the amazing gift. He asked his wisest ministers t study the elephant and find ut hw heavy it was.
The ministers thught abut many ways, but nne seemed pssible. Then, the emperr’s yung sn had an idea.
“First, put the elephant n a big bat in the water and mark hw lw the bat ges,” he said. “Next, take the elephant ff and fill the bat with stnes until it sinks (下沉) t the same mark. Finally, weigh the stnes. That will be the weight f the elephant!”
The by’s mther said prudly, “Hw clever yu are, my by!”
The ministers fllwed the by’s idea and fund ut the elephant’s weight. It was heavier than fur tns. They agreed that it was a very valuable animal.
But what was truly mst valuable was nt the elephant—it was the clever thinking f the yung by. His smart idea helped everyne slve a difficult prblem and taught them that wisdm is a great treasure.
26.What is the crrect rder f the main events in the stry?
① The elephant was shwn at the palace.
② The traveler arrived in China with a large bx.
③ The by explained his idea and they fund the weight.
④ The emperr asked his ministers t weigh the elephant.
A. ①→②→③→④ B. ②→①→④→③
C. ③→②→①→④ D. ①→③→④→②
27.What else culd be put in the bat instead f stnes?
A. Water. B. Anther elephant. C. A bigger bx. D. Sand r rice.
28.What scientific rule did the by fllw?
A. It is unsafe t put large animals n a bat.
B. A bat will sink deeper if it carries mre weight.
C. Elephants are much heavier than cmmn stnes.
D. A bat is strng enugh t carry a heavy elephant.
29.What des the “elephant” in the stry stand fr in real life?
A. A useful tl that helps us carry heavy bjects.
B. A large and heavy animal that is hard t mve.
C. A big prblem that is difficult t slve directly.
D. A valuable gift that cmes frm a faraway place.
30.Which saying can best shw the idea f the stry?
A. Think utside the bx. B. Many hands make light wrk.
C. Practice makes perfect. D. Actins speak luder than wrds.
C
Students have a lt f hmewrk. They ften g t bed late and wake up early fr schl. I’d like t invent a machine t help yu get ready in the mrning withut waking yu up. It wuld carefully pick yu up, take yu t the bathrm, brush yur teeth, get yu dressed and set yu dwn at the dining rm table. Then, it wuld gently wake yu fr breakfast. Yu’d be ready fr schl n time while still getting a gd night’s sleep!
——Cindy, frm Grade 8
I’d invent a time machine that culd take us t any day in histry. We wuld finally be able t answer questins like “What killed all the dinsaurs?” Just think hw different life wuld be if every questin abut histry culd be answered. And we culd visit the past r the future t see hw humanity has changed. Imagine visiting yur ancestrs! Imagine ging t the future t tell peple abut life in the past! Just think abut all that fun!
——Richard, frm Grade 8
A flying car! Yu culd g anywhere yu wanted. It culd prevent traffic jams during rush hur. We wuldn’t have t build as many highways. There wuld be mre space t plant trees. The air wuld be cleaner. My flying car wuld be pwered by slar energy (太阳能). We culd save all living things n Earth.
——Fred, frm Grade 7
I’d invent a “Md Mirrr” fr every classrm. Instead f yur face it shws clrs: blue fr lnely, range fr wrried, red fr upset. If yu walk past and see the clr, yu can give them a smile, say “hi,” r ask them t play. The mirrr never tells names, s n ne feels shy r singled ut. With Md Mirrrs, we culd take care f ne anther and make ur schl the kindest place ever!
——Sphie, frm Grade 9
31.Hw ften is Campus Brain Game held?
A. Once a day. B. Twice a week. C. Once a mnth. D. Twice a term.
32.What wuld Richard’s inventin allw peple t d?
A. T fly a slar-pwered plane. B. T talk t peple living in the future.
C. T bring the dinsaurs back t life. D. T find answers t any questin easily.
33.Which inventin helps with peple’s feelings?
A. The Mrning Rbt. B. The Time Machine.
C. The Flying Car. D. The Md Mirrr.
34.What d the fur students have in cmmn?
A. They all care abut hmewrk and sleep.
B. They all fcus n prtecting the envirnment.
C. They are all used t building rbts in class.
D. They all slve daily prblems in a new way.
35.What is the text prbably frm?
A. A schl website. B. A science magazine.
C. An invitatin letter. D. A schl newspaper.
D
In the digital (数字) age, teenagers spend mre time than ever n electrnic devices (设备)—phnes, pads and cmputers. But have yu ever wndered hw screen time influences reading speed? A recent study explred this questin.
Researchers divided a ttal f 300 middle schl students int fur grups based n their average (平均的) daily screen time: Grup 1 (less than 1 hur), Grup 2 (1-2 hurs), Grup 3 (2-3 hurs) and Grup 4 (mre than 3 hurs). Students frm different grades and schls were chsen t make the results mre scientific. All students were given the same 500-wrd passages t read, and their reading speed (tested in wrds per minute, WPM) was recrded. During the test, students were nt allwed t use any electrnic tls, ask fr help, r discuss with their classmates. They were als required t finish reading the passage within 10 minutes.
The study shwed a clear link between screen time and reading speed. Grup 1 had an average reading speed f 180 WPM, while Grup 2 reached 155 WPM. Grup 3 drpped t 120 WPM, and Grup 4 was the slwest at nly 90 WPM. Experts explained that lng screen time makes peple get used t shrt, fast-paced (快节奏的) infrmatin like shrt vides, which weakens their ability t pay attentin t lnger, mre difficult texts fr lng perids. This nt nly slws reading speed but als harms the ability t understand the text’s deeper meaning.
Hwever, the study als pinted ut that nt all screen time is bad fr reading skills. Spending 30 t 60 minutes a day reading e-bks can actually imprve vcabulary and reading fluency (流畅性). The key is t balance screen time with ffline reading activities. Teachers and parents are advised t guide students t make reasnable plans fr screen time instead f just stpping the use f electrnic devices.
36.Why did the researchers chse students frm different grades and schls?
A. T get mre supprt fr the study.
B. T make the result believable and fair.
C. T let mre peple be interested in the study.
D. T cmpare students wh read at different levels.
37.Which f the fllwing can shw the relatinship between WPM and daily screen time?
38.Why des lng screen time slw dwn reading speed?
A. It makes peple get used t shrt and fast infrmatin.
B. It makes peple avid reading lng and difficult texts.
C. It takes up much time in understanding the vide deeply.
D. It makes peple lse their interest in watching shrt vides.
39.Hw des the writer rganize the text?
A. By telling a stry and explaining a rule.
B. By intrducing a tl and describing its use.
C. By asking a questin and presenting a study.
D. By cmparing tw bjects and shwing the result.
40.What might the writer talk abut next?
A. Types f electrnic devices fr students.
B. Ways t balance nline and ffline reading.
C. Differences between e-bks and paper bks.
D. Examples f prper screen and reading time plans.
第二节 阅读七选五 （共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
A Chinese stick-and-ball game, als called “Buda Ball”, was ppular 1,300 years ag. Players use a curved (弧形的) stick t pass a ball and sht at a shrt gal, s it is similar t mdern-day flrball. In 2024, Chengdu added Buda Ball t its list f intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产名录). This gave the ancient sprt new hpe and a brighter future.
41 ______ Buda Ball shwed up at the Wrld Games held in Chengdu. Perfrmers wre clrful Tang-style cstumes and shwed hw t play Buda Ball. 42 ______ Frm August 7th t August 17th, the Buda Ball crner never emptied. Visitrs frm many cuntries said, “This is s cl! We’ve never seen a game like this!”
Wang Zhenfang, ne f the yungest fficial inheritrs (传承人) f Buda Ball, watched with pride. “43 ______ We hpe t share the sprt with mre peple arund the wrld,” she said.
44 ______ At that time, few peple knew Buda Ball. She felt sad and didn’t want this traditinal game t die ut. S she built a free training base (基地) near a Chengdu middle schl t let mre peple discver the sprt. Tday abut fifty teachers and students train there every weekend. They pst shrt vides nline, and the clips (短视频) have already picked up thusands f likes.
“The Wrld Games stage is just the beginning,” Wang said with a smile. 45 ______
第三部分 语言运用 （共四节，满分 35 分）
第一节 补全对话 （共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
阅读下面对话，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Mike: Hi Li Wei! I just saw yur lamp at the “Old Things New Use” shw. 46 ______
Li Wei: Thank yu! I’m happy yu like it.
Mike: 47 ______
Li Wei: Mainly sme ld plastic bttles and a small light. The hardest part was fixing the bttles tgether well.
Mike: I see! 48 ______
Li Wei: Yeah, it was nt easy at first. But my science teacher helped me, and then it became easier.
Mike: That’s great yu kept trying. 49 ______
Li Wei: I was really prud! The best part is turning waste int smething useful. Nw I think we shuld reuse things mre ften.
Mike: That’s a really gd pint.
Li Wei: Sure! 50 ______
Mike: Gd idea! I’m really excited t jin yu!
46.A. It lasted fr ne day! B. It lks really amazing!
C. It was shwn nline! D. It must be yur favrite!
47.A. What is it made f? B. Hw lng did it take?
C. Wh made it fr yu? D. Hw did yu make it?
48.A. Was it yur wn idea? B. Was it safe t tuch?
C. That sunds difficult. D. Dn’t be hard n yurself.
49.A. Why d yu make a lamp? B. Hw many bttles d yu use?
C. Where did yu get the bttles? D. Hw did yu feel when finishing it?
50.A. Sharing is meaningful. B. It is easier t buy a new ne.
C. Why nt use a zipper? D. Let’s try tgether next time!
第二节 完形填空 （共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When I was 14, my family mved t a new twn fr my father’s jb. On my first day at the new schl, I std utside the classrm, hands shaking, feeling 51 ______. Then I sat alne at the back, t sad t say a wrd t 52 ______. At lunch, I ate alne in the crner, picking at my fd 53 ______ jy. I didn’t feel happy at all. Lneliness weighed me dwn and I started t dubt 54 ______ I culd fit in.
One afternn, my bilgy teacher annunced a grup prject: grw ne plant, water it regularly (定期的) and 55 ______ its changes fr three mnths. I fund ne small sunflwer seed (种子) left. I picked it because it felt like me: 56 ______ and easily frgtten. I placed it in a clay pt by the windw fr sunlight.
Every evening I watered it 57 ______. But fr weeks, the sil (土壤) stayed dry. My 58 ______ felt heavier day by day. I mved the pt t the crner—even 59 ______ writing in my ntebk, afraid f “n change” lines.
Then ne 60 ______ Saturday, I fund a tiny green sht (嫩芽). Thin but strng against the rain, it reached bravely tward the gray sky as if running after hpe. The heavy rain had helped it break thrugh the sil, and was nw helping it grw 61 ______.
Weeks passed, the sht grew tall and reached tward the windw. Even when I mved the pt, it slwly 62 ______ back t the sunlight. I put the pt beside the windw every mrning 63 ______ it culd get mre sunshine.
Mnths later, its flwer pened. Small and sft, it was 64 ______ but shining. I realized that the seed was left ut but never stpped trying. I gt t knw that 65 ______ is the secret t grwth.
51.A. excited B. prud C. glad D. nervus
52.A. smene B. anyne C. everyne D. n ne
53.A. withut B. except C. against D. until
54.A. where B. wh C. whether D. hw
55.A. recrd B. imagine C. cmpare D. cntrl
56.A. utging B. cmmn C. creative D. strange
57.A. hardly B. easily C. plitely D. carefully
58.A. pain B. chice C. heart D. task
59.A. stpped B. began C. enjyed D. finished
60.A. sunny B. snwy C. windy D. rainy
61.A. wrse B. strnger C. deeper D. smaller
62.A. turned B. brught C. pushed D. climbed
63.A. as sn as B. even thugh C. s that D. by the time
64.A. perfect B. dead C. free D. simple
65.A. stress B. risk C. hpe D. training
第三节 阅读填空 （共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Have yu ever been s interested in smething that yu frget what’s ging n arund yu? This happy, gd feeling (66) ______ (call) “in the flw (流)”.
Smetimes yu are s lst in an activity that everything else (67) ______ (seem) t disappear. An expert named Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi described this feeling as “flw”. It happens when yu are fully fcusing n smething challenging but (68) ______ (enjy). Time ges by quickly, and yu use yur skills t the best f yur ability.
Hw is it gd fr yu?
Csikszentmihalyi believed that flw is the key t happiness. Putting all yur energy int a task makes yu prud f yur success. It als helps yu think mre (69) ______ (clear) because yu avid ther wrries. Fr example, when yu are paying full attentin t a chess game, yu aren’t thinking abut schlwrk. This helps manage feelings and reduces (减轻) stress. Flw feels gd because yu’re ding smething fr (70) ______ (yu), nt fr a prize r t make thers happy.
Hw can yu find the flw?
Finding flw is different fr everyne. By nw, peple (71) ______ (discver) that it can take 10 t 15 minutes f gd attentin t get (72) ______ it. Flw ften happens when yu d smething yu enjy and are quite skilled at, like slving a puzzle r drawing. Chse a fun challenge that yu knw yu can d. Find a quiet space withut any stps, and stay away frm screens. It helps mre (73) ______ yu are ding smething because yu want t, nt because yu have t. Start by simply practising with an activity yu lve. With practice, yu can learn (74) ______ (bring) this gd feeling t ther things, making (75) ______ (activity) like hmewrk mre interesting t.
第四部分 写作 （共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节 情境运用 （共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.A: ____________________?
B: She did a gd jb and wn first prize.
77.A: ____________________?
B: They must be Ms Chen’s. I just saw her cutting paper.
78.A: Jasn didn’t pick up my call. Where’s he?
B: He’s in class. ____________________.
79.A: What kind f music d yu prefer?
B: ____________________.
80.A: ____________________?
B: It’s fr hlding gifts fr my friends.
第二节 作文 （满分 25 分）
假如你是李华，下图是你校对 200 名学生进行问卷调查的结果。请你根据图示信息和要求，以 “Hw d the students slve their prblems?” 为题，写一篇英语短文，并在下周的英语主题班会上发言。
写作要求:
1.短文须包含上图所有信息，可适当发挥，使文章连贯；
2.文中不得出现考生的真实姓名、校名等信息；
3.词数 100—120，开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Hw d the students slve their prblems?
Gd mrning, everyne! I’m Li Hua. Last week ur schl gave a questinnaire t 200 students. The questin was: “When yu meet a prblem, what d yu usually d?” Here are the results.






Hell, everyne! Here cmes this mnth’s Campus Brain Game. We’re ging t talk abut what yu wuld like t invent. Let yur imaginatin run wild and pst yur thughts belw.
——Andrew, Student Unin President
A. The shw at the Games is meaningful.
B. Wang began t pass the sprt n years ag.
C. The big mment arrived n August 6th, 2025.
D. The stick fr buda Ball is made f wd r bamb.
E. She believes Buda Ball will belng t everyne ne day.
F. Peple in her hmetwn are gd at playing Buda Ball.
G. Their quick, smth mvements had the crwd cheering.