2025~2026学年济南市“市中区”八年级第一学期英语期末考试试题以及答案

这是一份2025~2026学年济南市“市中区”八年级第一学期英语期末考试试题以及答案，共10页。
注意事项:
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用 0.5mm 黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到五个句子，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出适当的应答语。每个句子听两遍。
1.A. Sure, n prblem. B. Thanks fr yur help. C. N, yu can't.
2.A. N,I'm nt. B. N. She's as slim as me. C. Yes. She swims faster.
3.A. What a great idea! B. Hw time flies! C. Hw clever yu are!
4.A. I'm ging t wrk hard. B. I'm gd at writing. C. I want t be a writer.
5.A. I did smething interesting. B. I went t Hangzhu. C. I celebrated it alne.
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6.Hw ften des Bill clean his bedrm?
A. Every day. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
7.What did the girl d last Sunday afternn?
A. She went climbing. B. She played chess. C. She went t the cinema.
8.Wh will make the apple pie?
A. Lisa and Frank. B. Lisa and Jim. C. Frank and Jim.
9.What is Jim's plan abut?
A. Travel. B. Jbs. C. Sprts.
10.What is the relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Saleswman and custmer. B. Teacher and student. C. Tur guide and turist.
第三节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11.Whse birthday is n Saturday?
A. Helen's. B. Mike's. C. Bb's.
12.Why is Helen wrried at first?
A. She desn't like ging camping.
B. She frgt t invite Mike and Bb.
C. Alex might miss her birthday party.
13.When will Alex's camping trip finally happen?
A. This Saturday. B. Next weekend. C. Never.
14.What will Helen's mum prepare fr the party?
A. Beef and cheese pizzas. B. A strawberry cake. C. Sme sft drinks.
15.What can we knw abut Helen?
A. She is Alex's sister. B. She is turning twelve. C. She is as tall as Alex.
第四节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16.Which class wn the ftball match last week?
A. Class 4, Grade 7. B. Class 7, Grade 8. C. Class 4, Grade 8.
17.Where will Mr. Wang give a speech?
A. In the schl hall. B. In the garden. C. In the schl library.
18.When is the English play?
A. On Tuesday afternn. B. On Wednesday afternn. C. On Thursday afternn.
19.Hw many news tpics des the speaker mentin?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
20.What is the talk mainly abut?
A. The English students' visit. B. Hw t hld an art shw. C. The week's schl news.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解 (共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Friends are imprtant. With the Internet, we can even make friends with peple frm arund the wrld easily. Wuld yu like t make sme freign friends? Read these psts.
21.What is Paul's mther?
A. A lawyer. B. A nurse. C. A writer. D. A teacher.
22.Hw many peple are there in Tm's family?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five. D . Six.
23.Wh is with Emma in China?
A. Her parents. B. Her Chinese friend. C. Her classmates. D. Her brther.
24.If Helen is interested in Chinese culture, wh culd she make friends with accrding t the text?
A. Paul. B. Tm. C. Emma. D. Li Yue.
25.What can we learn frm the text?
A. Tm likes ding sprts. B. Paul has a cllectin f 20 bks.
C. Emma enjys Map Tfu. D. Li Yue's mther wrks in the UK.
B
Sme f my family members, like my grandparents, dn't live near me. During the winter hlidays and sme ther vacatins, my little sister and I will visit them with ur parents. On ther days, we ften write letters t them.
One time, we decided t make a special letter t send t ur grandparents. First, we tk ut lts f markers. We used paper and flded it in half. Then, we drew a picture n the frnt. In the picture, we were making ckies with ur grandparents. We clred it all in. On the inside, we wrte dwn ur wish list fr the next hliday, including making ckies fr them.
Anther time, we wrte a letter t ur cusin Peter and cut it up int large pieces. We included a nte in the envelpe (信封). The nte explained that he shuld put the puzzle (拼图) pieces tgether t read the letter. It was a lt f fun!
Writing a letter is a special way t stay in tuch with yur family. The letter desn't have t be perfect. Just write smething and put it in the mailbx. It will make yur family members really happy!
26.Why d the writer and his sister ften write letters t their grandparents?
A. Their grandparents live far away. B. They enjy writing very much.
C. Their parents ask them t d s. D. Their grandparents can't use phnes.
27.Hw did they make a special letter fr their grandparents?
A. They made real ckies and put them in. B. They wrte a stry abut their hliday.
C. They drew a picture and wrte a wish list. D. They put their favrite markers inside.
28.What des the underlined phrase"stay in tuch" in Paragraph 4 prbably mean?
A. meet ften B. cmmunicate C. talk happily D. help each ther
29.What made the letter t Peter different?
A. Peter received it when it was his birthday.
B. The writer included sme family phts in it.
C. Peter culdn't read it until he finished a puzzle.
D. The writer and his sister wrte it n a cmputer.
30.What des the writer want t tell us in the last paragraph?
A. Emails are better than paper letters.
B. Only handwritten letters can shw lve.
C. Letters must be perfect t make peple happy.
D. A simple letter can bring jy t family members.
C
Yu may think science is serius, but nt at the Pineapple Science Award (菠萝科学奖)! It hnrs interesting findings in science. Zhejiang Science and Technlgy Museum started this award in 2012. This year, the winners came ut n Nvember.22. We chse three t share with yu.
·Bilgy award
When ants have thers arund, they wrk harder! Scientists in Australia watched ants that make hmes with leaves. They used fake (假的) leaves with frce sensrs (传感器) t see hw strng the ants are when pulling leaves. After checking ver 30,000 ants, they fund that ants pulled really hard-103 times their bdy weight- when ther ants were arund. But when alne, they nly pulled 60 times their weight.
·Medical award
D yu knw what intermittent fasting (轻断食) is? It's when yu eat fr nly eight hurs a day and dn't eat fr the ther 16 hurs. Many peple d it t lse weight. But scientists at West lake University in China fund that in mice, this kind f fasting can make special cells (细胞) in hair rts die. In ther wrds, it will cause hair lss.
・Psychlgy (心理学) award
Guessing which hand is hiding a cin (硬币) is a very ppular magical trick. If yu can't guess right, the prblem might be yur hands. Scientists in Singapre asked magicians t d this trick fr jays (松鸦). The jays nly guessed wrng 30 percent f the time, while humans guessed wrng 75 percent. Why? Magicians use hand mvements t trick peple, but jays dn't have hands, s they can't be tricked, said the scientists.
31.What is the main purpse f the Pineapple Science Award?
A. T award scientists fr their serius research.
B. T hnr interesting and fun scientific discveries.
C. T encurage peple t lse weight in a healthy way.
D. T teach students abut bilgy and psychlgy.
32.What did scientists in Australia learn abut ants?
A. Ants can mve big leaves. B. Ants try less when they wrk alne.
C. Ants prefer t wrk in grups. D. Ants can tell if a leaf is real r fake.
33.Accrding t the study, what might happen if smene des intermittent fasting?
A. It might help brain grw faster. B. It might make brain cells die.
C. It might cause hair lss prblems. D. It might help peple live lnger.
34.Why can jays d better than humans in the cin trick?
A. Hand mves dn't trick them. B. They have better prblem-slving skills.
C. They can see things mre clearly. D. The magicians gave them a lt f training.
35.Which sectin f a magazine is the text prbably frm?
A. Nature. B. Health. C. Culture. D. Science.
D
Imagine rdering yur favurite burger and having it fly t yur dr. Well, that's exactly what's happening n an island in Sweden!
A cmpany frm Nrway, Aviant, is testing a new service: sending fd by drne (无人机). The drnes bring ht, fresh burgers frm a fast-fd restaurant t peple's hmes n Värmdö island. This island is near Stckhlm, the capital f Sweden, but it is nt easy t get t quickly. Especially in the lng winter mnths, when it gets very cld and the sea freezes, the jurney becmes even mre challenging. Yu can drive r take a bat, but yu can't cycle r walk there. And tens f thusands f peple live there, with tens f thusands mre cming t stay fr the summer.
"As yu can see n the map, there are 87,000 peple wh cannt get a hme delivery (投递) service," said an Aviant fficial. "They live in areas far frm the city centre and wuld like t rder takeaway (外卖) fd, but they have n chice."
Right nw, this drne service is being tested. They deliver nly abut 10 meals a week. They can fly fr 10 minutes and travel abut 10 kilmeters. Peple are excited t see drnes bringing their fd. It's like a flying rbt delivering dinner!
The testing tk three years. At first, the fd arrived cld r wet! But nw, even in the cld weather f Sweden and Nrway, the fd stays warm when it arrives.
Aviant plans t expand the service next t an area in Nrway. If everything ges well, they hpe t use drnes t deliver fd in mre places acrss Nrthern Eurpe, and maybe even in Nrth America ne day.
S, culd yur next meal cme frm the sky? Fr sme peple, that future is already here!
36.Why did Aviant test its drnes n Värmdö island?
A. There are n fast-fd restaurants nearby.
B. The peple there like t rder fd nline.
C. Many hmes there can't get fd delivery.
D. It is far frm the city and has very few peple.
37.What prblem did the drnes have at first?
A. They flew t high. B. The fd arrived cld r wet.
C. They cst t much mney. D. Heat stpped them frm flying.
38.Hw many meals d the drnes deliver each week nw?
A. Abut 10. B. Abut 87. C. Abut 1,000. D. Abut 10,000.
39.What is Aviant's next plan if the test keeps ging well?
A. Sell drnes t American schls. B. Build new restaurants n Värmdö.
C. Stp using drnes in delivering fd. D. Bring the service t a place in Nrway.
40.What may be the best title fr the text?
A. Burgers by Drne B. Driving in Winter
C. Summer n an Island D. Making Fast Fd
第二节 阅读七选五 (共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
It's easy t get wrried when yu have a lt n yur plate. By creating an rganized t-d list, yu can feel ready fr anything in yur life. 41
List all f yur tasks.
These tasks include simple things like taking a shwer and difficult nes like preparing a presentatin fr English class. 42 It will make sure yu dn't frget anything, and it will als help yu clear yur mind.
43
Fr example, yu may have a t-d list fr schl and a t-d list fr hme. By creating separate lists, yu can fcus yur attentin and energy n ne set f tasks at a time.
Make yur list lk nice.
This might seem unimprtant, but it can change the way yu lk at yur t-d list 44 Just create a list that encurages yu t stay psitive and get things dne.
Place it where yu can see it.
There is n pint in creating a list if yu put it in a drawer and frget abut it. 45 Physically seeing a list f tasks yu need t cmplete can light the mtivatinal (激发性的) fire within yu.
第三部分 语言运用（共四节，满分 35 分）
第一节 补全对话 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
Amy: Hi, Ken. Our cmmunity will hld an activity t clean up the park this Saturday. 46
Ken: Yes,I did. Hw abut yu?
Amy: Me t. I'm just thinking abut what t prepare. D yu have any advice?
Ken: Well, we might need glves and rubbish bags. 47
Amy: Gd idea. Let's take sme frm hme.
Ken: OK. 48
Amy: Oh, I'd lve t.
Ken: Great! It's green and healthy.
Amy: Right. By the way, I als plan t plant a tree there if pssible.
Ken: 49 It's meaningful t make ur neighbrhd greener.
Amy: Will yu bring yur yunger sister with us?
Ken: Yeah, she wants t cme. 50
Amy: Great! Let's meet at the park gate at 9 a.m.
46.A. Did yu hear abut it? B. What time will it start?
C. Are yu ging t jin? D. Can yu help rganize it?
47.A. Where did yu buy them? B. Hw many d we need?
C. Why dn't we bring them? D. Wh can help us get sme?
48.A. Hw will yu g there? B. Can yu give me a lift?
C. What wuld yu like t be? D. Shall we g there by bike?
49.A. Gd fr yu! B. Nthing serius! C. I dn't agree! D. Sunds tiring!
50.A. She's t yung t jin us. B. She likes nature a lt.
C. She is busy this weekend. D. She dislikes getting dirty.
第二节 完形填空 (共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文，从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Last Saturday, Lily, sixteen, helped at her aunt's small milk-tea shp. It was clse t the city hspital, 51 many nurses and dctrs came in fr a quick drink. At five 'clck a yung nurse named Kate walked in, lking very tired. She rdered a warm brwn-sugar milk tea and sat at the crner table. Lily saw Kate's eyes were 52 , as if she had been crying.
"Kind wrds give peple a 53 f hpe." Lily remembered what her aunt said 54 making the drink. She tk a blank paper cup, wrte a shrt message with a red marker, and stuck it n the side:"Thank yu fr keeping ur city 55 . Tmrrw will be kinder." She 56 a tiny smiling sun beside the wrds.
Kate tk the drink 57 nticing the nte. After the first sip (一小口) she saw the message. Lily watched frm behind the cunter. Kate's face changed 58 - surprise first, then a sft smile. She tk a pht f the cup, finished the tea, and walked back t the cunter. "Can I speak t the girl wh 59 this drink?" she asked. Lily stepped frward, a little 60 . Kate placed a hspital badge (徽章) n the table. "I just finished a twelve-hur shift (轮班). Three patients died tday. Yur nte felt like a warm hand pulling me 61 cld water. I will keep the cup n my desk t remember that strangers care."
Befre leaving, Kate 62 tw mre drinks and tld Lily t give them t the next healthcare wrkers wh came in. She wrte n a piece f paper,"Kindness is like bubble tea (珍珠奶茶). 63 spreads (扩散) when yu shake it. Trust the gd yu send ut; it 64 cmes back."
Fr the rest f the evening Lily kept thinking abut the nte that went frm her hand t a stranger's 65 . That night she wrte in her diary:"If yu want t help thers, yu dn't need big plans. A tiny nte can make a big smile."
51.A. but B. s C. because D. r
52.A. blue B. black C. red D. brwn
53.A. blck B. sense C. chance D. date
54.A. where B. hw C. wh D. when
55.A. safe B. ppular C. easy D. rich
56.A. talked B. wrte C. drew D. smiled
57.A. until B. except C. against D. withut
58.A. slwly B. surely C. easily D. carefully
59.A. drank B. made C. bught D. signed
60.A. serius B. warm C. afraid D. humur
61.A. ut f B. up t C. acrss frm D. alng with
62.A. depended n B. packed up C. wrried abut D. paid fr
63.A. friendship B. cnfidence C. sweetness D. mixture
64.A. ften B. never C. smetimes D. always
65.A. muth B. heart C. ears D. eyes
第三节 语法填空（共 7 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 7 分）
阅读下面句子，用括号内所给单词的正确形式完成句子。
66.Will AI make ur life better r ______(bad)?
67.We will g fr a picnic if it ______(rain) tmrrw.
68.My dream jb is t be a fashin ______(design).
69.Parents make rules t help children grw up ______(health).
70.Kindness is ne f the mst imprtant ______(quality) fr us.
71.My grandma ______(teach) me t make pumpkin pie.
72.It's ______(pssible) fr me t be there n time because f the heavy traffic.
第四节 阅读填空（共 8 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 8 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In 2016, Disney's Ztpia (《疯狂动物城》) was a huge success. The mvie (73)______(shw) a city full f talking animals and had a gd message abut teamwrk.
Nw, Ztpia 2 is cming with anther(74) (excite) adventure! This time, Judy Hpps and Nick Wilde have a new challenge. The plice (75) (partner) find that their friendship isn't strng enugh. Their bss, Chief Bg, makes them jin a special prgram (76)______(fix) their teamwrk. But then, smething big happens. A snake cmes t Ztpia and brings new danger. Judy and Nick try t slve the prblem. Tgether, they g undercver (卧底) t a new place. There they meet new characters and face their biggest challenge.
Ztpia 2 is as fun and mving as the(77) (ne) mvie. It shws hw friends can learn t wrk tgether again. Many peple plan t watch this new mvie. A viewer(78) Guangzhu mentined that the stry let peple feel warm and real."I believe mre yung peple (79)
(fall) in lve with it since it mixes laughter with thughtful messages." S dn't (80) (miss) the wild ride!
第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分 35 分)
第一节 情境运用 (共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
81.A:________________________?
B: Yes. Emma is gd at running.
82.A: What des Li Wei want t be when he grws up?
B:________________________.
83.A:________________________?
B: We need half a cup f it.
84.A:________________________?
B: Yes, there will. Peple will live lnger.
85.A: What are yu ging t d this weekend, Jhn?
B:________________________.
第二节 作文 (满分 25 分)
假如你是李华，学校要举办 “国际学生美食文化节”，来自不同国家的交换生们将分享他们的传统美食和背后的故事。作为活动组织者之一，请你以 “My Memry Dish” 为题，用英语写一篇短文，向外国小伙伴们介绍一道对你有特殊意义的菜肴 (食物)，用于学校活动的英文宣传册。
内容包括：
1.描述一道你家的特色菜 (食物)；
2.解释这道菜 (食物) 带给你什么样的回忆或感受；
3.说明这道菜 (食物) 对你的重要意义。
写作要求：
1.文中应包括所给内容要点，可适当发挥，使文章连贯；
2.文中不得出现考生的真实姓名、校名等信息；
3.词数 100 左右，题目已给出，不计入总词数。
My Memry Dish









答案
第一部分 听力
1.A 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. B 6.B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. B
11.A 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. B 16.C 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. C
第二部分 阅读
第一节 阅读理解
21.B 22. D 23. C 24. D 25. A 26.A 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. D
31.B 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. D 36.C 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. A
第二节 阅读七选五
41.G 42. B 43. C 44. E 45. D
第三部分 语言运用
第一节 补全对话
46.A 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. B
第二节 完形填空
51.B 52. C 53. B 54. D 55. A 56.C 57. D 58. A 59. B 60. C 61.A 62. D 63. C 64. D 65. B
第三节 语法填空
66.wrse 67. desn't rain 68. designer 69. healthily 70.qualities 71. taught
72. impssible
第四节 阅读填空
73.shwed 74. exciting 75. partners 76. t fix 77.first 78. frm 79. will fall
80. miss
第四部分 写作
第一节 情境运用（示例答案）
81.Is Emma gd at running
82.He wants t be a (dctr/teacher, etc. 合理即可)
83.Hw much (hney/milk, etc. 合理即可) d we need
84.Will there be mre peple in the future
85.I'm ging t visit my grandparents (合理即可)
第二节 作文（参考范文）
My Memry Dish
My memry dish is my grandma's tmat and egg ndles. It lks simple—red tmates, yellw eggs and white ndles mix tgether nicely.
Every time I felt sad r tired, grandma cked this fr me. I still remember sitting by her, watching her stir the eggs and bil the ndles. The smell always made me feel warm.
This dish is nt just fd. It's full f grandma's lve. It reminds me f the happy days with her and teaches me that the best things in life are simple and warm.
Frum
Hell! My name is Paul and I'm thirteen years ld. I live in Australia. My father is a lawyer. My mther wrks in a hspital. She takes care f the ld peple. I lve reading. There are abut 200 bks in my rm. D yu want t be my friend?
I'm Tm. I'm furteen and I'm frm Singapre. I have a big family. My grandparents, my parents, my brther and I live tgether in a very big huse. I like playing ping-png and ging bike riding.
Hell, I'm Emma. I'm fifteen years ld. I live in the UK, but I'm n a study tur in China with three f my classmates these days. Chinese peple are friendly. I really like the ndles here. They are s delicius. I'd like t have a Chinese friend.
My name is Li Yue. I live in Shenzhen with my family. It is a big city in China. My mther is an English teacher. With her help, I can speak English well. If yu are interested in China, I'd like t tell yu a lt abut my cuntry.
A. Everyne needs a t-d list.
B. Just write everything dwn.
C. Srt yur tasks int different types.
D. Make sure yu can see it very easily!
E. Fr example, yu can write it in yur favrite clr.
F. This makes it easier t d with yur tasks ne by ne.
G. Here are sme tips fr hw t make a gd t-d list.