山东济南市市中区2025—2026学年八年级英语第一学期期中考试试题（含答案）

这是一份山东济南市市中区2025—2026学年八年级英语第一学期期中考试试题（含答案），共9页。试卷主要包含了 Wh is shrt?等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用 0.5mm 黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A. I hiked in the muntains. B. There is a little time left. C. Julia is as slim as Lily.
2.A. It’s nt “grandma clean” yet. B. I dn’t agree with Peter. C. Bb didn’t feel like eating.
3.A. Did yu d anything special? B. Can I brrw yur chess set? C. D yu want t have a rest?
4.A. What des hme mean t yu? B. Where is the Bamb Sea? C. Hw are they different?
5.A. Lk at the beautiful butterfly. B. Thanks fr talking with me. C. Let me sweep the flr.
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. Wh is shrt?
A. Paul. B. Kate. C. Lily.
7. Hw ften did Sam vlunteer in the team?
A. On the weekend. B. Every afternn. C. Once a week.
8. What animals d Matt and Ella bth like?
A. Blue whales. B. Cheetahs. C. Tree frgs.
9. Hw is Mary different frm Tara?
A. Mary is smarter. B. Tara is quieter. C. Tara is mre utging.
10. Where des Frank plan t g?
A. T Helen’s new huse. B. T the cinema. C. T the histry museum.
第三节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. When did Tm g t the city z?
A. Last week. B. Last mnth. C. Last year.
12. Hw did Tm g t the Nature Park?
A. By car. B. By bus. C. By bike.
13. What plant did Tm like best?
A. The ltus flwers. B. The penies. C. The rses.
14. Hw many kinds f small animals did Tm see?
A. One. B. Tw. C. Three.
15. Wh wants t visit the Nature Park sn?
A. Lily. B. Tm’s cusin. C. Tm’s neighbr.
第四节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. In primary schl, what did the speaker spend mst f his time n?
A. Playing games. B. Schlwrk. C. Husewrk.
17. Hw did Mther feel when she saw the rubbish?
A. Excited. B. Unhappy. C. Bred.
18. What did the speaker say was parents’ jb?
A. Keeping the huse tidy. B. Cking delicius meals. C. Grwing sme vegetables.
19. What changed the speaker’s mind abut ding husewrk?
A. Reading a bk abut habits.B. Listening t his parents’ advice.C. Taking a life-skills class at schl.
20. What des the speaker think kids shuld learn t d?
A. T lk after themselves. B. T ask parents fr help. C. T build gd habits.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解（共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Friendship is like a beautiful painting, with each friend adding a different clr t it. I have three special friends, and they are all unique (独特的) in their wn ways.
Tm is the mst energetic ne. His father is the fastest I knw in running. Whenever there is a sprts meeting at schl, he always wins the first prize. His spirit is always influencing thers, and being with him makes me feel full f vitality.
Lily is the kindest girl in ur class. She is always ready t help thers. Once I was really wrried abut my math hmewrk, and she spent an hur patiently explaining the prblems t me. Thanks t her help, I made great prgress in math.
And then there is Jack, wh is the mst humrus. He can always cme up with the funniest jkes. One day in the classrm, he tld a jke that made everyne laugh. With him arund, there is never a bring mment.
We ften d things tgether. On weekends, we might g t the library t read bks r play basketball in the park. When I face difficulties, they are always by my side t supprt me. I think I am the luckiest persn in the wrld t have such wnderful friends, and ur friendship will surely last frever.
21.Why did the writer make prgress in math?
A. Tm studied with him after schl. B. Lily helped him slve the prblems.
C. The teacher gave him sme advice. D. He changed his mind abut math.
22.What des the underlined wrd “vitality” mean in Paragraph 2?
A. Cnnectin. B. Pleasure. C. Energy. D. Sunshine.
23.What is the main idea f Paragraph 4?
A. Jack is gd at telling jkes. B. Jack likes t shw ff in class.
C. The classrm is a fun place. D. Everyne lves funny stries.
24.What’s the structure f this text?
25.What’s the best title fr this text?
A. Hw t Make Friends
B. Weekend Activities
C. Wnderful Schl Life
D. My Three Special Friends
B
26.What time can yu take the City Sight Bus in January?
A. 8:30 a.m. B. 5:00 p.m. C. 6:30 p.m. D. 9:00 p.m.
27.Hw many places can peple visit alng the way if they take Line？
A at Central Statin?A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven. D. Eight.
28.Which place d bth f the bus lines pass by?
A. Farmers’ Bridge. B. Starlight Garden.C. King Henry’s Garden. D. Lvers’ Bridge.
29.Mr. Brwn and his wife want t take their pet dg t King Henry’s Garden. Hw much d they have t pay if they buy tickets nline?
A. $40. B. $45. C. $60. D. $67.5.
30.Wh may read this text?
A. Turists. B. Teachers. C. Scientists. D. Artists.
C
Jane Gdall, a famus animal scientist, was brn in England in 1934. As a little girl, she lved all animals. She nce sat in a hen huse fr hurs t see hw a chicken laid an egg. Her favrite ty was a stuffed chimp (黑猩猩) named Jubilee. On Octber 1, 2025, Jane died quietly in Tanzania. Even then, she was still n a glbal tur, giving talks t encurage yung peple t prtect wildlife and the planet.
When she was 26, this zlgist set ff alne fr Gmbe Stream Natinal Park in Africa, driven by her deep lve fr animals and the natural wrld, and she stayed there fr 60 years. At first, the wild chimpanzees were scared and ran away. Jane waited patiently n the hills every day. After five mnths, a male chimp she named David Greybeard tk a banana frm her hand. Sn she even gt clse enugh t watch chimpanzees use sticks t “fish” fr termites (白蚁) and they decrated themselves with leaves and feather. Befre Jane, peple thught nly humans culd make and use tls. Her discvery changed that idea.
Jane later earned a Ph.D. frm Cambridge University withut first ging t cllege—smething very few peple d. In 1977 she started the Jane Gdall Institute, and in 1991 she created “Rts & Shts.” Tday this prgram is active in mre than 60 cuntries. It attracts (吸引) teenagers arund the wrld t plant trees, clean rivers, and help animals tgether.
Jane traveled 300 days a year, always carrying her ty mnkey Mr. H. She ften said, “Every ne f us matters. Every ne f us can help.” She kept her prmise t nature all her life. Thugh Jane is gne, her lve and wrk will stay in ur hearts frever, encuraging us t care fr every living thing arund us.
31.Hw ld was Jane Gdall when she died?
A. 26 years ld. B. 60 years ld. C. 81 years ld. D. 91 years ld.
32.What made Jane Gdall g t Gmbe Stream Natinal Park alne at 26?
A. Her deep lve fr nature and animals. B. Her dream f becming a zlgist.
C. The invitatin frm lcal zlgists. D. The task f studying termite habits.
33.What did Jane name the first chimp that tk a banana frm her?
A. Jubilee. B. Gmbe. C. David Greybeard. D. Mr. H.
34.What did Jane Gdall’s discvery abut chimpanzees break?
A. Sticks were useless in the frest. B. Only humans culd make and use tls.
C. Catching termites was a piece f cake. D. Chimpanzees like t decrate themselves.
35.What des the writer mainly tell us?
A. Traveling 300 days a year is healthy.
B. Cambridge gives degrees t famus peple.
C. Chimpanzees are smarter than ther animals.
D. Jane Gdall is a rle mdel fr prtecting nature.
D
36.What did the children usually d while the adults were talking at the rund table?
A. They helped serve the dishes.
B. They ran arund r hid under the table.
C. They went utside t play games.
D. They listened t the adults talking quietly.
37.After Grandpa died, why did the family still put ut his bwl and chpsticks?
A. They frgt t take them away.
B. They hped he wuld cme back t eat.
C. They didn’t have enugh cupbard space.
D. They wanted t remember and feel clse t him.
38.Hw des the writer feel abut the rund table?
A. She dislikes it. B. She wants t sell it.C. She lves it deeply. D. She thinks it’s small.
39.What can we learn abut Chinese culture frm this text?
A. Rund tables are used because they are easy t make.
B. Only grandparents are allwed t sit at the rund table.
C. The rund table shws peple’s lve f family reunins.
D. Chinese peple always eat the same fd at every festival.
40.Where can we prbably read this text?
A. On an nline frum. B. On the schl ntice bard.
C. In an English newspaper. D. In a traditinal culture magazine.
第二节 阅读七选五（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
D yu have different skills? Kelly has many!
Can yu take ut the trash?Yes, I can. Befre thrwing the trash ut, I carefully srt it int the right grups. Sme are recyclable (可循环再用的), like ld newspapers and glass bttles. 41
42
Yes, f curse. I can fld my clthes nicely, like my shirts, dresses and pants. When I put my clthes in the clset (衣橱), I usually place the clthes f the same seasn tgether. But smetimes I g with the clr. I als pick up the tys frm the flr and put them in a bx.
43 I usually take everything ff the desk, and use tissues (纸巾) t wipe ff the dust (擦掉灰尘) n the desk. After that, I put everything back in its right place.
After cleaning the desk, I take time with my bkshelf. 44 S I must make sure they have a nice “hme”. Mst f the time, I put my bks tgether by type, nt by size.
What else can yu d?Oh yeah, I can read the wrld map! I lk at it a lt t try t remember as many cuntry names as I can. 45 This is very fun. By reading the map, I can learn mre abut different parts f the wrld. I may even g there ne day.
第三部分 语言运用（共四节，满分 35 分）
第一节 补全对话（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
Linda: Hi, Henry! Where did yu g n vacatin?
Henry: I went t Huangshan with my parents.
Linda: 46
Henry: The views there were great! 47
Linda: Nt really. I just stayed at hme and helped my mum with chres.
Henry: 48 Oh, there is a new animal and plant exhibitin. D yu like these kinds f shws?
Linda: Yes! I lve them. 49
Henry: At City Exhibitin Hall. Let’s g this Saturday!
Linda: Great! Can yu remind me t take a camera?
Henry: 50 By the way, what time shuld we meet there?
Linda: Hw abut 9 a.m.? We’ll have enugh time t lk at every exhibit slwly.
Henry: Perfect! See yu then.
Linda: See yu!
46.A. What d yu think f it? B. Did yu enjy the trip?
C. D yu like Huangshan? D. Why d yu like it?
47.A. D yu g utside? B. What abut yu?C. Where did yu g? D. Did yu d anything fun?
48.A. Yeah, it’s bring! B. Hw amazing!C. Hw helpful yu are! D. Yu’re kidding!
49.A. Hw d we get t the hall? B. When is the shw n?
C. Where can we see the shw? D. Wh rganizes the shw?
50.A. Gd idea. B. N prblem. C. Thanks a lt. D. Srry, I can’t.
第二节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A grup f wild Asian elephants left Xishuangbanna Natinal Nature Reserve in Yunnan Prvince. They 51 500 kilmeters! After stpping in Kunming, 15 f them stayed in Yuxi city. Then they kept 52 twards a place they liked.
At first, there were 16 elephants in the grup. But ne baby elephant was brn during the trip, s the number became 53 . Later, tw yung male (雄性的) elephants 54 the grup and went in different directins.
Many peple wanted t knw 55 the teenage male elephants left. Shen Qingzhng has studied wild Asian elephants fr ver 30 years. He is the chief engineer (首席工程师) at Xishuangbanna Natinal Nature Reserve. He said, “The elephants are ‘rebelling’ (叛逆的). It’s like when yung peple grw up and smetimes dn’t 56 their parents.”
Shen als said that after watching elephants fr years, he fund a rule: male elephants ften leave their grup t 57 mates (同伴) when they are ver six years ld. The tw male elephants that left this time are abut ten years ld. They just didn’t want t stay with their 58 and wanted t g ut n their wn! But when they are 14 years ld, they will start t g back hme mre 59 .
D yu knw hw 60 elephants are? A newbrn elephant has an IQ (intelligence qutient) like a 1-year-ld baby. When it grws up t be an adult, its IQ is similar t, r even 61 than, a 5-year-ld child.
Baby elephants grw fast t. A baby elephant can stand up in a few minutes 62 being brn. Abut tw hurs later, it can walk beside its mther. And ne week after birth, it will g with its mther t bathe (洗澡) in rivers 63 lakes.
Chen Mingyng is a 64 prfessr (教授) at Yunnan University. He nticed that the elephant grup mved 65 . He thught ne pssible reasn is that they were waiting fr the tw male elephants that left t cme back.
51.A. traveled B. ran C. climbed D. drve
52.A. sleeping B. mving C. eating D. resting
53.A. fifteen B. sixteen C. seventeen D. eighteen
54.A. left B. jined C. helped D. fllwed
55.A. when B. where C. hw D. why
56.A. lk fr B. listen t C. talk abut D. fight with
57.A. lse B. affect C. prtect D. find
58.A. teachers B. friends C. family D. neighbrs
59.A. ften B. seldm C. hpefully D. prbably
60.A. big B. smart C. fast D. strng
61.A. lwer B. lnger C. bigger D. higher
62.A. until B. befre C. after D. since
63.A. r B. and C. but D. s
64.A. histry B. science C. sprts D. plant
65.A. quickly B. quietly C. finally D. slwly
第三节 语法填空（共 7 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 7 分）
阅读下面句子，用括号内所给单词的正确形式完成句子。
66. I can take care f ______ (I) when my parents are ut.
67. D yu knw this is the wrld’s ______ (tiny) camera?
68. The ______ (similar) between the tw dresses is their clur.
69. I ______ (fresh) finished my article. What d yu think f it?
70. Wmen usually wear beautiful skirts, bluses and ______ (scarf).
71. Tny tried t lk fr answers but culdn’t find ______ (smething) helpful.
72. An pen sea ______ (appear) befre us when we gt t the tp f the muntain.
第四节 阅读填空（共 8 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 8 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Yesterday, I met my friend Mia at the park. The weather was warm, and the air felt cmfrtable. I (73) ______ (bring) a bk full f humrus jkes t share, but Mia lked a bit disappinted when she arrived.
“I frgt my lunchbx at hme,” she said. I smiled and tk ut tw sandwiches. “Dn’t wrry — share mine! We can’t enjy the day (74) ______ fd, right?” Mia’s face lit up, and I felt surprised by hw happy a simple act culd make her.
We sat under a tree, and a few clurful (75) ______ (butterfly) flew arund us. “Lk at them,” Mia said. “S pretty!” We talked abut the imprtance f helping each ther. “Small actins like sharing fd shw hw much we care,” she reminded me.
Later, we saw kids playing a game. “Feel free (76) ______ (jin) them,” I said. Mia ran ver, and sn we were laughing happily. I nticed the similarity between (77) ______ (we) — we bth lve making new friends! When the sun set, Mia said, “Tday made me remember the (78) ______ (gd) f friendship.”
Walking hme, I thught abut hw (79) ______ (easy) we can cheer up each ther. Mia’s smile shwed me that nthing is (80) ______ (imprtant) than a friend wh stays by yur side, even n a messy day.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节 情境运用（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
81.A: Des Li Ming swim faster than Mike?
B: N. ____________.
82.A: ____________?
B: I bught it last summer.
83.A: ____________?
B: Yes, I went there with my family.
84.A: ____________?
B: Yes, if yu are careful with it.
85.A: Where are Dad and Mum, Jim?
B: In the living rm. ____________.
第二节 作文（满分 25 分）
本周五开始，学校英语广播站开播 “Hliday Vices” 专栏，现面向全校征稿。稿件要求以 “My Meaningful Hliday” 为主题，用英语介绍一次让你印象深刻的假期经历，并说明它为什么有意义。
稿件中需包含：
1.假期的时间、地点；
2.你做了哪件印象最深的事（至少一个细节）；
3.这件事带给你的感受或收获。
稿件将由你在广播站亲自朗读，录音会在午休时播放。请注意以下要求：
1.词数 80—100 词；
2.内容充实、行文连贯；
3.开头有问候（Gd afternn, everyne!……），结尾用一句祝福送给大家；
4.开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Gd afternn, everyne! I’m Li Hua frm Grade 8. My meaningful hliday was ___________








2025年八年级期中学业质量监测英语试题参考答案
第一部分听力1-5 CABAB
第二部分阅读
6-10 CCABB
11-15 BACCA
16-20 BBACA
（共两节，满分50分）
第一节阅读理解
21-25 BCAAD 26-30 BCDBA 31-35 DACBD 36-40 BDCCA
第二节阅读七选五41-45 CDEGF 第三部分语言运用第一节补全对话
46-50 ADCCB
第二节完形填空51-55 ABCAD 56-60 BDCAB 61-65 DCABD
第三节语法填空
66.myself 67. tiniest 68.similarity 69.freshly 70.scarves/ scarfs 71.anything 72.appeared
第四节阅读填空
73.brught 74.withut 75.butterflies 76.t jin 77.us 78.gdness 79.easily
80. mre imprtant
第四部分写作
第一节情境运用
81.He swims as fast as Mike .
Li Ming swims as fast as Mike .
Mike swims as fast as Li Ming .
They swim at the same speed ./ They swim equally fast ./ They just swim as fast .
82. When did yu buy the flding fan ?
83. Did yu g t / visit / climb the Great Wall ( with anyne / yur family )?
84.Can/ Culd I use / brrw yur cmputer ?Can / Culd yu lend me yur cmputer / lend yur cmputer t me ?
85. They are hanging up phts / pictures .
They are hanging up a pht / picture .
They are putting up the paintings ( n the wall ).My mst lving childhd memry is abut a rund table.
When I was little, my whle family wuld get tgether fr dinner n almst every traditinal festival. While the adults talked abut things we kids didn’t understand, we wuld run arund r even hide under the table t play hide-and-seek.
When I was 12, my grandpa died f cancer (癌症). But when ur family gt tgether again, his chair, bwl and chpsticks stayed the same. Even thugh his seat was empty, it felt like he never left us.
Almst every family has a table like this. It stands fr family reunins (团圆) and carries ur lve fr family. In China, many things can be slved arund a rund table. Weddings, saying gdbye t peple wh passed away, business talks, and even big dinners fr freign presidents (总统)—all these can happen at the same kind f rund table.
The fd n the table may change ver time. The peple sitting arund it may cme and g. The reasns we get tgether may be different, but the feeling behind it never changes. That feeling is ur kindness t different peple, ur wish t accept different cultures, and ur care and lve fr nt just ur family, but als ur cmmunity, ur cuntry, and even the whle wrld.
In less than tw mnths, a big yearly trip happens in China. Millins f peple — men and wmen, yung and ld, rich and pr, and even peple like my grandpa wh are n lnger with us — will find a way t g hme. They want t sit arund the rund table and be with their families.
The pwer that makes them d this is the same pwer that keeps Chinese culture alive (活的) fr thusands f years. Our lives, and even ur cuntry’s histry, are all stries f finding r ging back t the rund table that belngs t us. The rund table is a symbl f Chinese peple’s feelings. It was, it is, and it will always be.
A.Can yu fld yur clthes?
B. My bkshelf is very useful.
C. Sme are nt, like medicine.
D. Can yu clean up yur rm?
E. I clean my desk nce every week.
F. I als lk fr famus places n the map.
G. I lve reading, and I think f bks as my best friends.