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      山东济南历下区2025—2026学年八年级英语第一学期期中考试试题(含答案)

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      山东济南历下区2025—2026学年八年级英语第一学期期中考试试题(含答案)

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      这是一份山东济南历下区2025—2026学年八年级英语第一学期期中考试试题(含答案),共10页。
      注意事项:
      1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
      2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,用 0.5mm 黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
      3.考试结束后,将本试题和答题卡一并交回。
      第一部分 听力(共四节,满分 30 分)
      第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
      听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
      1.. Sunds fun!
      B. Our pleasure!
      C. Hw amazing!
      2.A. What was it like?
      B. When did it happen?
      C. Hw are they different?
      3.A. Hme is a place f lve.
      B. He did a wnderful jb.
      C. Ella is hlding a bx.
      4.A. Culd they g ut?
      B. Did she take any phts?
      C. Is Tm as tall as Adam?
      5.A. There are n fruits in it.
      B. Peter can’t play badmintn.
      C. I didn’t d anything special.
      第二节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
      在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
      6. What wuld Henry like t d first?
      A. Hang up the phts. B. Set the table. C. Clean the kitchen.
      7. Hw was the weather yesterday afternn?
      A. Rainy. B. Cludy. C. Sunny.
      8. When will the party start?
      A. At 4:00 p.m. B. At 5:00 p.m. C. At 6:00 p.m.
      9. Wh sings better?
      A. Sarah. B. Lily. C. Han Lin.
      10. What grws the best in David’s garden?
      A. Tmates. B. Strawberries. C. Grass.
      第三节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
      在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
      11. Where did Alice attend the “Neighbrs’ Day”?
      A. In the park. B. In a restaurant. C. On the playgrund.
      12. What did they have in the mrning?
      A. A picnic. B. A sprts meeting. C. A cking class.
      13. Wh taught peple t make mncakes?
      A. Mrs. Chen. B. Mr. Li. C. Anna.
      14. What made Alice and Anna becme friends?
      A. Similar hbbies. B. Similar plans. C. Similar appearance.
      15. What did Alice get frm this activity?
      A. She knew mre peple. B. She wn a sprts game. C. She gt a nice gift.
      第四节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
      在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
      16. What des the bx lk like?
      A. New and heavy. B. Old and heavy. C. New and big.
      17. Hw did the writer feel abut the bx at first?
      A. Nt useful. B. Interesting. C. Special.
      18. What did grandpa write these letters fr?
      A. T shw his lve. B. T help dad learn t write. C. T tell sme stries.
      19. What was in the bx?
      A. New tys. B. Fun bks. C. Old things.
      20. Why des the writer add new things t the bx?
      A. T make it lk new. B. T make the bx cleaner. C. T share gd experiences.
      第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分 50 分)
      第一节 阅读理解(共 20 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 40 分)
      阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
      A
      21.What kind f cmpetitin is it?
      A. The basketball cmpetitin. B. The chess cmpetitin.
      C. The pht cmpetitin. D. The music cmpetitin.
      22.Where shuld yu uplad the phts?
      A. Jinan Fcus WeChat. B.
      C. [email protected]. D. [email protected].
      23.What culd the pht(s) shw?
      A. A clr pht f the rainbw in Jinan. B. A black-and-white pht f Daming Lake.
      C. Tw phts abut Jinan in the past. D. A set f six phts abut tall buildings in Jinan.
      24.Hw many winners will get the prizes?
      A. Six. B. Fifteen. C. Thirty. D. Frty-six.
      25.When can yu jin the cmpetitin?
      A. On Nvember 12th. B. On Nvember 21st. C. On December 20th. D. On December 12th.
      B
      Once, there were tw wmen wh lived in the same village. They bth grew the same plants in their wn gardens. One wman called Lisa was hard-wrking. She watered her plants and tk care f them every day. The ther wman, named Rebecca, didn’t d quite as much. On the ther hand, she nly watered her plants when the weather was sunny and fine. She always just let her plants grw hwever they wanted.
      One evening, there was a big strm with heavy rain. It destryed (毁坏) many f the plants. The next mrning, when Lisa wke up, she fund that all her plants fell dwn t the grund because f the rain. Hwever, when she gt t Rebecca’s garden, t her surprise, she saw that all f the plants were still standing in the garden. Rebecca’s plants lived thrugh the strm.
      Hw did this happen? The plants f the relaxed wman learned t d things n their wn frm the very beginning. They grew deeper rts (根) and made places fr themselves in the sil (土壤). They culd stand up strng n their wn, even during a strm. But since Lisa did everything fr her plants, they never learned t live thrugh any difficulties.
      This stry reflects an imprtant truth abut life. It is the same fr us. Sner r later, we have t let g and becme independent (独立的). If we just let thers d everything r slve ur prblems fr us, we’ll never learn t d things n ur wn. We wn’t develp the strength t face challenges alne. Just like plants, we grw strnger when we learn t stand independently.
      26.Hw did Rebecca care fr her plants?
      A. By wrking hard every day. B. By cutting ff dead leaves.
      C. By making places in the sil. D. By watering them smetimes.
      27.What happened t Lisa’s plants after the strm?
      A. They grew strnger. B. They all fell dwn.
      C. They lked gd. D. They needed mre water.
      28.Why did Rebecca’s plants stand up strng?
      A. Their rts were deep. B. The strm was nt heavy.
      C. Lisa helped them. D. They were special plants.
      29.What des the underlined wrd “they” in the 3rd paragraph refer t?
      A. Lisa’s plants. B. Rebecca’s plants.
      C. Everyne’s difficulties. D. Rebecca’s gardens.
      30.What lessn can we get frm the stry?
      A. Strms are dangerus. B. Never help anyne.
      C. Being independent is imprtant. D. Gardening is easy.
      C
      Zhang Jiaqi, 15, lives in Suzhu. Last Octber he saw lts f takeaway bxes in the schl bin and felt bad. “I was part f the prblem,” he said. S he drew a simple “green card” with five rules: n single-use plastic (一次性塑料), n fd waste, walk when the trip is under tw kilmeters, buy nly what is needed, and turn ff all lights that n ne is using. He stuck the card n his desk and asked tw classmates t check his card every Friday. T his surprise, his small game sn became a class challenge: thirty students jined, drew their wn cards and kept weekly “green scres”.
      Saving the planet sunds huge, but Jiaqi began with tiny steps. He put a flding spn and a metal frk in his lunch bx. When dining time came, he bught ndles in his wn bwl and gt a ne-yuan discunt frm the canteen lady. Every Friday he tk the plastic he had accidentally cllected t the art rm, where pupils turned bttles int flwerpts and made big bags frm ld T-shirts. In winter he set his phne t remind him t clse windws when the heater was n. The alarm rang at 21:30 each night. As a result, in six mnths his family’s electricity bill (电费单) fell by 9%.
      The biggest test came during the Spring Festival. Relatives arrived with armfuls f gift baskets wrapped (包装) in shiny plastic. Jiaqi gave them clth bags he had made frm his mther’s ld curtains and explained the “green card”. The cusins laughed, but they used the bags and even tk the idea back t their wn cities.
      By the end f the schl year Jiaqi had kept 92 kg f waste and saved 180 yuan that he culd use by himself. “I used t think ne persn cunts fr nthing,” he says. “Nw I knw ne times many is everything.”
      31.What made Jiaqi start thinking abut living in a green way?
      A. A science lessn. B. The clth big bags. C. An electricity bill. D. The rubbish at schl.
      32.Which is true abut the “green card” in paragraph 1?
      A. It is nt successful in the class. B. It is made frm 92 kg f waste.
      C. Jiaqi drew it t ask thers t fllw. D. Others cpied it t make their wn.
      33.What des the underlined wrd “discunt” in paragraph 2 mean?
      A. A lwer price. B. A free meal. C. A better seat. D. A late bill.
      34.Why did Jiaqi mentin the Spring Festival?
      A. T explain gifts are beautiful. B. T shw a challenge is als a chance.
      C. T describe a traditinal dinner. D. T tell family waste during dinner.
      35.What is the best title fr the passage?
      A. Electricity Bills Rise in Winter. B. One Card, One Year, A Success.
      C. The Gd Way t Greet Peple. D. A Way f Making Green Cards.
      D
      In 2005, a small red rbt named Tddler surprised the whle wrld. Tddler was nly as tall as a six-year-ld child, and it had n eyes r muth, just tw straight legs and a simple cmputer brain. Still, it culd learn t walk in nly twenty minutes—abut six hundred steps—withut any help frm peple. At first it mved slwly and ften lst balance (平衡), but after every step it studied the grund, changed the way it mved its knees and arms, and tried again. Sn it walked naturally like a real child, and even climbed gentle slpes (斜坡).
      Tddler was shwn t the public at the big American Assciatin fr the Advancement f Science meeting in February 2005. Tw ther walking rbts std beside it, but Tddler was the smartest. Older walking rbts used ne mtr fr each part. They needed ten times mre pwer because they fught against gravity (重力) all the time. Tddler was different. It let gravity help its bdy fall frward, then quickly placed the next ft under its center, just like a human. If it started t fall dwn, it reacted in less than ne secnd and caught itself befre hitting the grund.
      The team leader, Michael Fster, explained why they built Tddler. “We want rbts t d jbs that are t dangerus r dirty fr peple,” he said. In the future, walking rbts culd enter burning huses t lk fr peple wh hurt, climb brken buildings when accidents happen, r explre the far-away planets. The same prgram might als help dctrs build better artificial (人工的) legs fr sldiers, r children wh have lst their legs. Fster believes that tday’s Tddler is nly the first step. “Give us ten mre years,” he smiled, “and rbts will walk, run, jump, and carry heavy packs beside ur sldiers and save them.”
      Tday, many middle-schl students dream f jining this exciting wrk. Wh knws? Maybe the next great helper rbt will be designed in yur wn classrm!
      36.Which is true abut Tddler in paragraph 1?
      A. It lked like an ld man. B. It culd walk withut learning.
      C. It culd walk fr 600 minutes. D. It culd learn t walk by itself.
      37.What is the difference between Tddler and the lder rbts?
      A. Older rbts used ten mtrs. B. Tddler had a mtr fr every part.
      C. Tddler used less pwer t walk. D. Tddler hit the grund mre ften.
      38.What culd rbts d in the future?
      A. Walk withut cmputers. B. Wrk as a real dctr.
      C. Teach like a human. D. Help peple d mre things.
      39.What’s the purpse f the last paragraph?
      A. T let readers cntinue t read. B. T encurage students t take part in.
      C. T advise schls t buy rbts. D. T shw science curses are interesting.
      40.Where is the text prbably taken frm?
      A. A stry bk. B. A traveling bklet. C. A diary entry. D. A science magazine.
      第二节 阅读七选五(共 5 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
      阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
      Travel is mre than taking phts and buying gifts. When we leave ur daily lives behind, we pen the dr t a bigger wrld. 41 This passage I will explain why middle-schl students shuld be encuraged t travel.
      First f all, travel trains ur life skills. On a trip we must read maps, ask strangers fr help and plan the mney we have. 42 These prblems may be hard, but they teach us t think quickly and make wise decisins. The earlier we practise these skills, the mre independent we will becme.
      Secnd, travel helps us understand different cultures. A classmate f mine nce laughed at a visitr wh ate with his hands. But after he had a tur t India, he saw that eating by hand is a traditinal and ppular way t shw respect fr fd. 43 Travel teaches us that “different” des nt mean “wrng”.
      Third, travel makes textbk knwledge (知识) alive. A gegraphy lessn abut muntains becmes real when yu stand n Munt Huangshan at sunrise. 44 When knwledge cmes with sights, sunds and feelings, it is kept in mind lnger and deeper.
      Sme parents wrry that they spend t much mney traveling. In fact, a ne-day visit t a nearby twn r even a planned walk thrugh an ld street is als travel. 45 What matters is nt the distance (距离), but the pen eyes and mind.
      In shrt, travel is a hidden class that imprves ur skills, widens ur minds and strengthens ur knwledge. Let’s pack ur curisity and start the jurney—near r far—this weekend!
      第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分 35 分)
      第一节 补全对话(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
      阅读下面对话,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
      Yaming: Hell, Linda! Hw was yur trip t Tai’an?
      Linda: Hi, Yaming! It was fantastic.
      Yaming: 46 Linda: I went there with my parents.
      Yaming: 47 It’s ne f the mst famus muntains in China.
      Linda: Yes. I enjyed the beautiful landscape and saw the sunrise.
      Yaming: Hw lucky yu were! Did yu eat anything special?
      Linda: Yes, we did. 48 I like a kind f sup. It has Chinese cabbage, tfu and water in it.
      Yaming: It must be delicius. What else did yu d?
      Linda: 49 Hpe yu like it. Here yu are!
      Yaming: Well, it’s a flding fan with Guest-Greeting Pine n it. I lve it s much. Thanks a lt.
      Linda: 50
      46.A. Wh did yu g with? B. When did yu g? C. Why did yu g there? D. Hw did yu feel?
      47.A. Did yu take the car? B. Did yu visit Munt Taishan?
      C. Did yu g n vacatin? D. Did yu g with anyne?
      48.A. Everyne was tired. B. Everywhere was gd. C. Everything tasted gd. D. Smebdy was busy.
      49.A. I bught yu a gift. B. I tk sme phts. C. I read a bk. D. I visited a museum.
      50.A. Have a gd trip. B. Thanks fr inviting me. C. Dn’t wrry. D. Yu’re welcme.
      第二节 完形填空(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
      阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
      Diana gathered her bks and headed t the gym. Tday was the day t sign ups (报名) fr after-schl sprts prgrams, 51 that she’d been lking frward t all summer. She and her brther Jeff, played sccer almst every day, s she made up her mind t jin the sccer team.
      “Hey, Diana,” Lisa met her at the gym dr. “I can’t 52 t sign up, what abut yu?”“I’m really excited.” Diana saw the sccer cach (教练) buncing the ball frm knee t knee. She hped he wuld teach her, t. When she walked tward the cach, Lisa pulled her arm. “ 53 are yu ging? Cheerleading (啦啦队) sign ups are ver there.” Lisa pinted t a wman with a clurful bard. “We’re all signing up. Emma, Ella and me. Yu are pleased t sign up with 54 , aren’t yu?”
      “Eh...” T be hnest, Diana culdn’t decide that. “Lisa, I’ve been practicing fr 55 .”Lisa lked at her in surprise. “Sccer! Why didn’t yu tell me?”“Because yu were away fr mst f the summer.” Diana watched Emma and Ella walking t the cheer leading cach. They mtined (示意) fr Diana and Lisa t 56 ver. Diana was glad t be with her friends, 57 she really wanted t play sccer. That is her favrite sccer.
      Lisa asked Diana why she wuld 58 sccer. Diana tld her abut all the cl 59 the cach can d with the ball and hw gd she had gt at being a galkeeper (守门员). By the end f the summer, her brther Jeff had a 60 time getting the ball past her!
      Lisa ndded and lked at the cach 61 . She fund thse tricks are truly pretty cl. She smiled. “Well, my best friends, Emma and Ella signed up fr cheer leading. I thught it wuld be 62 t jin tgether with them.”
      Diana als believed that it wuld be interesting t jin a sprt with all her friends. “Yu’re right. Maybe I’ll jin cheerleading, t.” She finally made a decisin and started t walk tward her 63 , but Lisa pulled her arm again.
      “Wait. What will yu d 64 I jin sccer with yu?” Lisa asked.“Really?” Diana was surprised. Lisa answered, “Yeah. I think I’d like t have a 65 , but I might need yu t help me.”“Yu gt it!” Diana said excitedly. She was ging t play her favrite sprt right alngside her best friend this time.
      51.A. nbdy B. smewhere C. Smething D. nthing
      52.A. believe B. wait C. remember D. decide
      53.A. What B. Wh C. Hw D. Where
      54.A. them B. us C. yu D. her
      55.A. tennis B. sccer C. cheerleading D. basketball
      56.A. turn B. think C. cme D. lk
      57.A. and B. but C. s D. r
      58.A. rganize B. reprt C. dislike D. chse
      59.A. tls B. fights C. jbs D. tricks
      60.A. hard B. easy C. full D. busy
      61.A. exactly B. carefully C. cmfrtably D. regularly
      62.A. fun B. spare C. fresh D. busy
      63.A. teachers B. friends C. caches D. families
      64.A. if B. because C. althugh D. as
      65.A. walk B. rest C. lift D. try
      第三节 阅读填空(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
      阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
      Last year, ur class went n a very exciting schl trip t a rainfrest. It was ur first time in such a place, 66 we were very excited. The air was wet, and we culd hear many strange animal sunds. Our guide was a friendly man named Sam. He 67 (knw) everything abut the frest.
      While we were walking, he pinted t a tree and said, “Kids, this is a ‘walking tree’.” Our whle class laughed. I remember I said ludly, “That’s impssible! Trees can’t walk. They have rts under the grund!” Sam didn’t get angry. He just smiled and asked us 68 (cme) clse t the tree. “Lk at its rts,” he said. We lked carefully and saw that the tree’s rts were different 69 thers’. They were lng and strng, and they came ut f the grund near the bttm f the tree.
      Sam explained, “These special rts dn’t stay in ne place. The tree can 70 (grw) new rts n the side twards the sunlight. At the same time, the ld rts n the ther side 71 (slw) die. In this way, the tree will mve twards a brighter place. It desn’t walk like 72 (we), f curse. It maybe nly mves a few centimeters in a year, but it is mving t find a 73 (gd) place t live.”
      Hearing this, my face turned red. I felt srry fr my quick wrds. I learned 74 imprtant lessn that day. The natural wrld is full f amazing things that we dn’t knw abut. We shuld nt always think we knw everything. Instead, we shuld keep ur 75 (eye) and minds pen, and always be ready t learn new things frm nature.
      第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 35 分)
      第一节 情境运用(共 5 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
      根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
      76.A: Dave, did yu g anywhere interesting n yur hliday?
      B: Yes, ________.
      77.A: Linda, ________?
      B: Sure, Mum.
      78.A: ________?
      B: Yes! That’s because Lily runs fr exercise very ften.
      79.A: What can we eat when spring cmes?
      B: ________.
      80.A: Where is Matt?
      B: In the classrm. ________.
      第二节 作文(满分 25 分)
      假如你是腾飞(Teng Fei),你的英国笔友 Peter 将于下个月来到你校参加为期两周的交流学习。不久前你收到 Peter 的来信,他在信中分享了自己的性格特点、外貌喜好以及英国的校园生活。请你根据以下表格与图片提示信息,给 Peter 写一封英文回信,告知你们各方面的相同点和不同点,帮助他提前熟悉中国的生活,为交流做好准备。
      要求:
      1.词数不少于 100(开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数);
      2.内容完整,条理清晰,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
      3.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
      Dear Peter,
      I’m s excited t hear that yu’re cming t my schl fr the exchange prgram next mnth!







      Yurs sincerely,
      Teng Fei
      2025-2026 学年第一学期八年级期中英语试题答案
      第一部分 听力
      1—5AABCC 6—10BCBCA 11—15CCABC 16—20BCCBA
      第二部分 阅读
      第一节 阅读理解
      21.C 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. A
      26.D 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. C
      31.D 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. B
      36.D 37. C 38. D 39. B 40. D
      第二节 阅读七选五
      41.B 42. E 43. G 44. D 45. A
      第三部分 语言运用
      第一节 补全对话
      46.A 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. D
      第二节 完形填空
      51.C 52. B 53. D 54. B 55. B
      56.C 57. B 58. D 59. D 60. A
      61.B 62. A 63. B 64. A 65. D
      第三节 阅读填空
      66.s 67. knew 68. t cme 69. frm 70. grw 71.slwly 72. us 73. better
      74. an 75. eyes
      第四部分 写作
      第一节 情境运用(答案不唯一,符合图片及语境即可)
      76.I went t Xi'an and visited the Terractta Army.
      77.culd yu help me fld the clthes?
      78.Is Lily much faster than befre?
      79.We can eat fresh spring vegetables and cherry blssms.
      80.He is practicing playing the erhu.
      第二节 作文范文
      Dear Peter,
      I’m s excited t hear that yu’re cming t my schl fr the exchange prgram next mnth! Let me share ur similarities and differences t help yu fit in better.
      We have many things in cmmn. Bth f us are utging and helpful—yu ften help yur classmates with drawing, and I like assisting my friends with their studies. We als lve sprts and music: yu play sccer and listen t music, while I enjy playing badmintn and playing the flute. Besides, we’re bth passinate abut learning new things!
      There are sme differences t. Yu have blnde hair and are tall and strng, but I have black hair and am f medium height. I usually g t schl by bike—it’s abut 2 kilmeters frm my hme, s it takes me 15 minutes. Unlike yur sccer club, I jin the chess club twice a week and ften g running in the mrning. Our schl day starts at 8:00 a.m. and ends at 5:00 p.m., and we have mre grup activities like calligraphy classes.
      I’m sure we’ll get alng well and have a great time tgether. If yu have any questins, feel free t ask me. Lking frward t meeting yu sn!
      Yurs sincerely,
      Teng FeiA.It desn’t have t be expensive r far.
      B. It is a living textbk that yu never learn in class.
      C. Suddenly, the cld numbers n the page jump int life.
      D. The histry yu have learned turns int clurful stries.
      E. Language difficulties, wrng turns r missed buses ften happen.
      F. If we have enugh mney, we shuld travel abrad as ften as pssible.
      G. Withut such experiences, we may think ur wn habits are the nly right nes.

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