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      七年级下学期3月学情自测英语试题

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      七年级下学期3月学情自测英语试题

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      这是一份七年级下学期3月学情自测英语试题,共11页。
      全卷满分:100分 考试时间:90分钟 (无听力)
      注意事项:
      1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
      2.选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。
      3.回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
      4.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
      一、单项选择 (共10小题,每小题2分,共20分)
      从下列各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择最佳选项。
      1.—Can yu play the guitar?
      —________. But I can play the vilin.
      A. Yes, I can B. N, I can't C. Yes, I d D. N, I dn't
      2.My sister wants t jin the music club. She is gd at ________.
      A. singing B. sing C. sings D. t sing
      3.—________ d yu usually get up?
      —At 6:30.
      A. What time B. Hw C. Where D. Why
      4.Tm ________ his hmewrk at 7:00 every evening.
      A. d B. des C. is ding D. did
      5.Either yu r I ________ ging t the party this evening.
      A. am B. is C. are D. be
      6.Please cme and ________ the schl art festival. It's very interesting.
      A. jin B. take C. shw D. help
      7.—What time des yur father ________ wrk every day?
      —At 8:00 in the mrning.
      A. g t B. get t C. leave fr D. start
      8.My brther ________ gets up early, s he is never late fr schl.
      A. never B. smetimes C. always D. usually
      9.—________ des it take yu t get t schl?
      —Abut 15 minutes.
      A. Hw far B. Hw lng C. Hw many D. Hw ften
      10.I like t play chess, but my brther likes t play ________ pian.
      A. a B. an C. the D. /
      二、完形填空 (共10小题,每小题1.5分,共15分)
      阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
      I'm Li Mei. I'm a middle schl student. I have a gd friend. Her name is Wang Lin. She is 13 years ld. We are in the __11__ class. She is gd at English. She ften __12__ me with my English. I am gd at math. I help her with math. We help each ther.
      Wang Lin has many __13__. She can sing, dance and play the guitar. She wants t jin the music club. I can play chess, __14__ I want t jin the chess club. Smetimes we g t the __15__ club tgether. There we can play chess and listen t music. We als like t __16__ stries. Wang Lin can tell stries very well.
      On weekends, we usually get up __17__ 8:00. Then we have breakfast. After breakfast, we d ur hmewrk. At 11:00, we g t the park. We ften __18__ there fr an hur. In the afternn, we g t the library. We like reading bks. Reading is __19__ fr us. It helps us t knw abut the wrld. At 6:00 in the evening, we g hme. We have a gd time tgether. I am happy t have such a gd __20__.
      11. A. sameB. differentC. bigD. small
      12. A. asksB. helpsC. teachesD. tells
      13. A. hbbiesB. lessnsC. classesD. clubs
      14. A. butB. becauseC. sD. r
      15. A. artB. EnglishC. chessD. music
      16. A. writeB. tellC. readD. listen
      17. A. nB. inC. atD. fr
      18. A. walkB. runC. playD. stay
      19. A. bringB. interestingC. gdD. bad
      20. A. sisterB. teacherC. friendD. classmate
      三、阅读理解 (共两节,满分30分)
      第一节 (共5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
      阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
      A
      D yu like music? Welcme t ur schl music club. We have many great musicians. Yu can learn t play the guitar, the pian r the vilin. Yu can als learn t sing and dance. The music club is pen frm 4:00 pm t 6:00 pm n weekdays. And n weekends, it is pen frm 9:00 am t 5:00 pm. If yu want t jin, please call Mr. Zhang at 622-8899.
      21. What can yu learn in the music club?
      A. Play the guitar and sing. B. Play basketball. C. Draw pictures. D. Speak English.
      22. When is the music club pen n Saturday?
      A. 4:00 pm t 6:00 pm. B. 9:00 am t 5:00 pm. C. 8:00 am t 6:00 pm. D. 9:00 am t 4:00 pm.
      23. Hw can yu jin the club?
      A. Send an email. B. Write a letter. C. Make a call. D. Visit the club.
      B
      Sam is a student. He gets up at 6:30 every mrning. Then he takes a shwer and has breakfast. He ges t schl at 7:20. He usually walks t schl. It takes him abut 15 minutes. Classes start at 8:00. He has fur classes in the mrning and tw in the afternn. He likes English and music. He desn't like math because it's difficult. After schl, he ften plays sccer with his classmates. He gets hme at abut 5:30. Then he des his hmewrk. He ges t bed at 9:30.
      24. Hw des Sam g t schl?
      A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By car. D. On ft.
      25. What time des Sam get hme?
      A. At 5:30. B. At 5:00. C. At 4:30. D. At 6:00.
      26. What subject des Sam nt like?
      A. English. B. Music. C. Math. D. P.E.
      C
      Hi, I'm Mike. I'm 13 years ld. I live with my parents and my sister in a small twn. My father is a dctr. He wrks in a hspital. He usually gets up at 6:00 and ges t wrk at 7:30. He is very busy. My mther is a teacher. She teaches English in a middle schl. She gets up at 6:30 and ges t wrk at 8:00. My sister is 10. She is a student. She ges t schl at 7:40. I am a student, t. I g t schl at 7:30. We ften have dinner at 6:30 in the evening. After dinner, I usually watch TV fr half an hur, and then I d my hmewrk. I g t bed at 9:00.
      27. What des Mike's father d?
      A. A teacher. B. A dctr. C. A wrker. D. A driver.
      28. What time des Mike's mther g t wrk?
      A. At 7:00. B. At 7:30. C. At 8:00. D. At 8:30.
      29. Hw ld is Mike's sister?
      A. 10. B. 11. C. 12. D. 13.
      30. What des Mike d after dinner?
      A. He des his hmewrk. B. He watches TV. C. He plays sccer. D. He reads bks.
      第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,共10分)
      阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
      My name is Alice. I'm a middle schl student. I have a healthy life. __31__ I usually get up at 6:30 in the mrning. Then I take a shwer and have breakfast. I like milk and bread fr breakfast. __32__ I ften have lunch at schl. I eat rice, chicken and vegetables. In the afternn, I ften play basketball fr half an hur. __33__ I g hme at 5:00. After dinner, I d my hmewrk fr an hur. __34__ I g t bed at 9:30. On weekends, I ften g t the library. __35__ I think it's gd fr me.
      A. They are healthy fd.
      B. It helps me t relax.
      C. I like t read bks there.
      D. I usually get up late n weekends.
      E. Then I watch TV fr a while.
      F. I dn't like sprts.
      G. I have a busy schl day.
      四、词汇运用 (共10小题,每小题1.5分,共15分)
      根据句意及首字母或汉语提示,写出空缺处单词的正确形式。
      36. My brther can play the g________ very well. He is in a band.
      37. I usually take a s________ at 6:30 in the mrning.
      38. She wants t j________ the swimming club.
      39. What time d yu have b________? I have it at 7:00.
      40. My sister is gd at d________. She wants t be a dancer.
      41. I ften help my mther with ________ (家务) n weekends.
      42. He ________ (从不) eats junk fd because it's unhealthy.
      43. We have a ________ (音乐) festival in ur schl every year.
      44. It's 7:30. Let's g t schl ________ (一起).
      45. My cusin ________ (学习) hard every day.
      五、任务型阅读 (共5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
      阅读下面的表格,完成46-50题。
      下面是几位同学的周末活动调查表。
      46. What time des Tny get up?
      __________________________________________________________________
      47. What des Tny d at 2:00 pm?
      __________________________________________________________________
      48. Wh gets up earlier, Tny r Lisa?
      __________________________________________________________________
      49. What des Lisa d at 2:00 pm?
      __________________________________________________________________
      50. What time des Lisa help her mther with husewrk?
      __________________________________________________________________
      六、书面表达 (共10分)
      假如你是李华,你的英国笔友Tm想了解你的日常生活。请你根据以下提示,用英语给他写一封回信,介绍你的一天的活动。
      提示:
      1. 起床时间、早餐;
      2. 上学方式、上课时间;
      3. 最喜欢的科目及原因;
      4. 放学后的活动。
      要求:
      1. 包含所有要点,可适当发挥;
      2. 语句通顺,语法正确,书写规范;
      3. 词数60词左右(开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数)。
      Dear Tm,
      I'm glad t hear frm yu. Nw let me tell yu abut my day.
      __________________________________________________________________
      __________________________________________________________________
      __________________________________________________________________
      __________________________________________________________________
      __________________________________________________________________
      What abut yur day? I'm lking frward t yur reply.
      Yurs,
      Li Hua
      参考答案及评分标准
      一、单项选择 (每小题2分,共20分)
      1-5 B A A B A 6-10 A D C B C
      二、完形填空 (每小题1.5分,共15分)
      11-15 A B A C C 16-20 B C D C C
      三、阅读理解 (共30分)
      第一节:21-23 A B C 24-26 D A C 27-30 B C A B (每小题2分,共20分)
      第二节:31-35 G A E B C (每小题2分,共10分)
      四、词汇运用 (每小题1.5分,共15分)
      36. guitar 37. shwer 38. jin 39. breakfast 40. dancing
      41. husewrk 42. never 43. music 44. tgether 45. studies
      五、任务型阅读 (每小题2分,共10分)
      46. At 8:00 am. 47. He plays sccer. 48. Tny. 49. She ges t the library. 50. At 6:30 pm.
      六、书面表达 (共10分)
      One pssible versin:
      Dear Tm,
      I'm glad t hear frm yu. Nw let me tell yu abut my day.
      I usually get up at 6:30 in the mrning. I have milk and bread fr breakfast. I g t schl by bike at 7:00. Classes start at 8:00. My favrite subject is English because it's interesting. After schl, I ften play basketball with my friends. Then I g hme and d my hmewrk. I g t bed at 9:30.
      What abut yur day? I'm lking frward t yur reply.
      Yurs,
      Li Hua
      评分标准:内容完整4分,语言准确4分,书写规范2分。
      Name
      Time
      Activity
      Tny
      8:00 am
      get up
      Tny
      9:00 am
      d hmewrk
      Tny
      2:00 pm
      play sccer
      Tny
      7:00 pm
      watch TV
      Lisa
      7:30 am
      get up
      Lisa
      9:30 am
      play the pian
      Lisa
      2:00 pm
      g t the library
      Lisa
      6:30 pm
      Help mther with husewrk

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