浙江省“山海联盟”2023-2024学年七年级下学期期中英语试卷 (学生版)

这是一份浙江省“山海联盟”2023-2024学年七年级下学期期中英语试卷 (学生版)，共10页。
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What is in the lst and fund bx?
A.Glves.B.A scarf.C.A hat.
2.Hw's the weather at the mment?
A.It's rainy.B.It's sunny.C.It's cludy.
3.Where des the girl's aunt wrk?
A.In the bank.B.In the supermarket.C.In the pst ffice.
4.Hw much will the man pay (支付) fr the meat?
A.15 yuan.B.30 yuan.C.45 yuan.
5.When will rbts drive taxis?
A.In 10 years.B.In 12 years.C.In 20 years.
第二节(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你有时间阅读各小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题将有5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第8三个小题。
6.Wh is Bb ging t visit tmrrw?
A.His aunt.B.His uncle.C.His grandparents.
7.Hw is Bb ging t the farm?
A.By bus.B.By car.C.By bike.
8.When will Bb g back?
A.At abut 8:00 p.m.B.At abut 8:30 p.m.C.At abut 9:00 p.m.
听下面一段对话,回答第9至第11三个小题。
9.Why is Lisa unhappy?
A.Because she has t talk with her parents.
B.Because she desn't have friends.
C.Because there are t many rules (规则) in her hme.
10.What des Lisa have t d after dinner?
A.G t bed.
B.Take the dg fr a walk.
C.Read bks.
11.What can we knw abut the by?
A.He ften ges ut t play n schl days.
B.He has t make the bed every mrning.
C.He will g t the library this weekend.
听下面一段独白,回答第12至第15四个小题。
12.What is Peter's dream?
A.T be a dctr.B.T be a teacher.C.T be a singer.
13.What des Peter prbably think f playing basketball?
A.Interesting.B.Bring.C.Difficult.
14.Hw lng will it take Peter t get t schl tmrrw?
A.Seven minutes.B.Eight minutes.C.Fifteen minutes.
15.What des Peter ften d at 7:30 p.m.?
A.He watches TV.B.He des hmewrk.C.He plays music.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项。
A
16.When can peple enjy jazz?
A.At 5 p.m. n Saturday.B.At 7 p.m. n Saturday.
C.At 8 p.m. n Sunday.D.At 9 p.m. n Sunday.
17.Hw much will Mr. White pay if he takes his 10-year-ld sn and 6-year-ld daughter t enjy rck and flk music?
A.$45.B.$60.C.$80.D.$100.
18.What can we knw frm the passage?
A.The Music Festival will be in July.
B.The Music Festival will last fr three days.
C.Peple can enjy the cuntry music at the City Hall.
D.Peple can call May fr mre infrmatin abut the Music Festival.
B
It's imprtant t be happy every day, but it's difficult fr mst peple t keep happy every day. Nw I have a gd way t make yu happy. That is t laugh.
D yu knw laughter clubs? There are many laughter clubs in India. Every mrning, peple f the clubs always start their day by laughing happily. They think a gd laugh is gd fr them.
I'm very curius abut the laughter clubs. What d peple d in these clubs? S I g t ne club t find the answer.
In the class, the teacher tells us t clap ur hands and say “h h h, ha ha ha” first. At the same time, we have t lk at each ther. It's a little funny, but it wrks. After ten minutes, we becme happy. All f the peple in the rm are laughing and sme peple can't even stp! After the class, I feel really relaxed.
As the saying ges, “ ▲ .” S when yu are nt happy abut smething at schl r at wrk, yu can try t laugh. Yu may feel better after a gd laugh. Then yu'll find yur life is very nice.
19.Hw d peple f the clubs in Paragraph (段落) 2 start their day?
A.By talking with thers.B.By playing sprts.
C.By eating nice fd.D.By laughing happily.
20.What des the underlined wrd “curius” mean (意思是)?
A.Feeling srry abut smething.
B.Wanting t knw mre abut smething.
C.Feeling bad abut smething.
D.Needing t knw much abut smething.
21.What's Paragraph 4 mainly abut?
A.What peple d in the laughter club.
B.What peple think f the laughter club.
C.Why peple like ging t the laughter club.
D.Why peple can be healthy in the laughter club.
22.Which f the fllwing can be put int the blank “ ▲ ”?
A.Time flies when yu're having funB.He wh laughs last laughs best
C.Laughter is the best medicine (药物)D.Gd medicine tastes bitter (苦的)
C
Muths are very useful t us. We use them t eat, talk, shut and sing. A few peple use them t breathe (呼吸) if their nses dn't wrk well. “Muth” is an imprtant wrd.
When a persn says bad things abut yu, yu may nt be happy and say, “Dn't bad-muth me!” A persn thinks yu said smething bad abut him r her, but yu didn't. Yu may shut, “D nt put wrds in my muth!”
Smetimes, peple say a thing t a friend r a family member that they feel srry fr, r they tell the persn smething they shuldn't tell. The speaker might say, “I really put my ft in my muth this time.” In ther wrds, he r she may feel sad fr saying the wrng thing. If a persn had a bad r unhappy experience (经历) with anther persn, he r she may say that experience “left a bad taste in my muth”.
Yu may say a persn was “brn with a silver spn (银匙) in his r her muth”. It shws this persn cmes frm a very gd family. He r she is different frm a persn wh lives “frm hand t muth”.
Next time yu pen yur muth t talk, think yur wrds ver!
23.What may Jack say if he had a bring trip t the farm?
A.“I didn't have a lvely muth.”
B.“I really put my ft in my muth this time.”
C.“It left a bad taste in my muth.”
D.“I was brn with a silver spn in my muth.”
24.If Sandy lives “frm hand t muth”, what can we knw abut her?
A.She has a lt f mney.B.She has a difficult life.
C.She feels srry fr her family.D.She always has gd luck.
25.What is the passage mainly abut?
A.Sme expressins (表达) using the wrd “muth”.
B.The rigins (起源) f sme expressins.
C.Sme interesting American expressins.
D.The imprtance f the muth.
26.In which part f a newspaper can we read this passage?
A.Science.B.Fd.C.Sprts.D.Language.
D
A lt f children take buses t schl every day, s yur children need t knw the fllwing things abut taking buses.
While waiting fr a bus, tell yur children t wait in line. When the bus gets t the stp, ask yur children t get n the bus ne by ne. It is nt gd t be late and jin friends at the frnt f the line. But it is gd fr yur children t let ld peple r peple with health prblems get n the bus first.
If the bus has many empty seats (空座), it is OK fr yur children t put their things like schlbags n an empty seat. But if anther man needs the seat, the things shuld be taken away right nw. Als, n a bus, if there are peple with small kids, ask yur children t give their seats t them.
Children may be excited t talk with friends, but they shuld talk quietly n a bus. If they want t listen t music, they shuld wear earphnes s that ther peple can't hear it.
As parents, yu shuld tell yur children that when they travel t and frm schl, they are representing (代表) their schl and family. Asking them t d the things that can help make thers happy.
27.Wh is this passage fr?
A.Parents.B.Children.C.Teachers.D.Old peple.
28.What shuld children d when they take the bus?
A.Let thers get n the bus first.
B.Give their seats t peple with small kids.
C.Jin friends at the frnt f the line if they are late.
D.Keep their things n an empty seat all the time.
29.What des the underlined wrd “they” in Paragraph 4 refer t (指代)?
A.Children.B.Children's friends.
C.Children's earphnes.D.Other peple.
30.Which f the fllwing best shws the structure f the passage?
A.B.C.D.
第二节 任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,根据短文内容完成以下任务。
任务A:从所给的选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项。(每个选项只用一次,选项中有一项为多余选项)
任务B:回答第35题的问题,不超过10个词。
Almst every day, we discuss the tpic f health. But what is health? “Health” means eating well, getting enugh exercise and having a healthy lifestyle. Here are sme useful rules. 31. ▲
★Eat different kinds f fds, especially fruit and vegetables. We all knw that eating fruit and vegetables keeps us healthy, 32. ▲ Remember that we can nly get what ur bdies need by eating all kinds f fds.
★Drink water and milk mst ften. Everyne knws that water is imprtant. But t build strng bnes, kids als need t drink mre milk, which is rich in calcium (钙). Every day, yu shuld drink at least three cups f milk when yu are 9 years ld r lder. 33. ▲ They usually have much sugar.
★Listen t yur bdy. When yu are eating, ntice hw yur bdy feels. 34. ▲ Eating t much makes yu unhealthy.
★Limit (限制) screen time. What's screen time? It's the time yu spend watching TV and mvies and playing cmputer games. Try t spend mre time ding sprts like running and swimming.
A.Yu shuld als try t have fewer sugary drinks.
B.When yur stmach (胃) feels full, stp eating.
C.but many f us nly eat ur favrite fd.
D.and many peple dn't like eating them.
E.They can help yu keep healthy.
35.What else can yu d t keep healthy?
▲
第三部分 英语知识运用(共四节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
通读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后在各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出一个最佳选项。
This is a stry frm the UK. It tells abut an ld man and a yung 36 .
The ld man has n family. He has n sns and n daughters. He isn't 37 and ften feels bad. Then ne day, he decides (决定) t 38 an ld peple's hme. He wants t 39 his huse befre he mves there. It is a(n) 40 huse and many peple want t have it.
The ld man wants 80,000 punds (英镑) 41 his huse. T many peple want t buy it, s the 42 sn ges up t 100,000 punds. But the ld man sits n the sfa and desn't feel happy. He 43 lves the huse. If he is healthy, he wn't sell the huse at all.
Just then, a yung man cmes up. He is quiet and says t the ld man, “Sir, I als 44 t buy yur huse. I nly have 1,000 punds. But if yu sell the huse t me, I'm 45 yu can g n living in it. What's mre, every day yu may drink tea r have a 46 with me. And I'll read a newspaper t yu and d everything t lk after yu, 47 yu will nt feel lnely and will be happy every day. Trust (信任) 48 , please!”
After hearing 49 the yung man says, the ld man sells his huse t him fr nly 1,000 punds. Smetimes it's nt s 50 t realize (实现) yur dream. What yu need is just yur kind heart.
B.dctrC.manD.wman
B.healthyC.funnyD.nice
inB.walk tC.help withD.think abut
B.sellC.findD.watch
B.ldC.nisyD.great
B.frC.withD.abut
B.clrC.nameD.kind
B.neverC.alsD.really
B.frgetC.wantD.stp
B.sureC.luckyD.sad
B.gameC.talkD.trip
B.becauseC.butD.r
B.yuC.himD.us
B.whereC.whatD.when
B.interestingC.imprtantD.difficult
第Ⅱ卷
第三部分 英语知识运用(共四节,满分40分)
第二节 选词填空(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空。每词限用一次。
leave hundred ver just watch
51.It is ▲ like her t tell everyne abut it.
52.The wman is ▲ fifty years ld, but she still lks quite yung.
53.I have three ▲ and all f them keep gd time.
54.He is ▲ Shanghai fr Beijing, because he wants t meet his friend there.
55.There are eight ▲ students in ur schl and mst f them are frm Zhejiang.
第三节 词汇运用(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
根据短文内容和所给首字母提示或中文提示,写出空白处各单词的正确形式。每空限填一词。
Hi! I am Mike.I live in Shanghai with my parents. My dad is a dctr. My mm wrks in a middle schl and she 56.t ▲ English.
I live far away frm my schl, s I 57.r ▲ my bike t schl. Every mrning I get up early. After I have 58.b ▲ , I g t schl. The first lessn starts at 8:00. Afternn lessns 59.f ▲ at 4:30. My 60. ▲ (最好) subject is math.
There are 61. ▲ (四十) students in my class. Simn is my classmate and he is als my gd friend. He likes drawing pictures. I like his pictures because they are very 62. ▲ (美). I like reading, and I am a member f the Reading Club. I like lts f sprts, t. I'm gd at 63. ▲ (游泳) and I play ftball n the schl team. I want t be a ftball player and I hpe my dream can cme 64.t ▲ .
On weekends, I usually watch TV r play the 65. ▲ (钢琴) at hme. They make me happy.
第四节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式(不超过三个单词)。
D yu lve animals? What d yu knw abut animals? The fllwing may help yu.
It's dangerus (危险的) 66. ▲ blind peple (盲人) t walk acrss the street. If they have 67. ▲ seeing-eye dg, crssing the street is much easier fr them. Plice dgs can help the plice 68. ▲ (find) dangerus things r bad peple.
Sme peple think animals are dangerus. They are afraid f tigers, lins 69. ▲ ther strng animals. But animals are 70. ▲ (usual) friendly. They aren't dangerus if peple dn't want t kill r hurt them. If we are 71. ▲ (happy), we can g t the z. When we watch sme great 72. ▲ (shw) f the clever mnkeys, we will feel better. With animals, 73. ▲ (we) life is full f fun. If yu keep small animals as pets, yu shuld knw what they eat and 74. ▲ they live. Yu can buy a bk abut 75. ▲ (this) animals. Yu shuld keep the pets clean and give them a gd place t live. Make sure they eat and drink well.
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题,满分20分)
你校小学部课后活动中心正在招募教学小助手(teaching assistant),假设你是朱明,请你根据要点提示,给教导处张老师写一封信,向他申请担任教学小助手一职。
要点提示:(1)What kind f teaching assistant d yu want t be?
(2)What d yu like and what are yu gd at?
(3)Hw can yu d the jb well?
(4)Why d yu want t be this assistant?
参考词汇及表达: ball games球类运动; speech演讲; music音乐; handicrafts手工艺; phtgraphy摄影; drawing绘画
I want t be a teaching assistant in…I think I'm the right ne fr…In my free time, I like t…I'm gd at…
要求:(1)信中不得出现真实的人名、校名等信息;
(2)词数:80左右;开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Mr. Zhang,
▲
▲
Yurs,
Zhu Ming
参考答案
1.B 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.C
6.C 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.B 11.C 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.C
16.B 17.B 18.C 19.D 20.B 21.A 22.C 23.C 24.B
25.A 26.D 27.A 28.B 29.A 30.C
31.E 32.C 33.A 34.B
35.We/I can get enugh sleep/keep happy t be healthy.(言之有理即可;语言分、内容分各一半)
36.C 37.B 38.A 39.B 40.D 41.B 42.A 43.D 44.C
45.B 46.C 47.A 48.A 49.C 50.D
51.just 52.ver 53.watches 54.leaving 55.hundred
56.teaches 57.ride 58.breakfast 59.finish 60.best 61.frty
62.beautiful 63.swimming 64.true 65.pian
66.fr 67.a 68.(t) find 69.and 70.usually 71.unhappy
72.shws 73.ur 74.hw 75.these
书面表达
One pssible versin:
Dear Mr. Zhang,
I'm Zhu Ming frm Class Six, Grade Seven. I want t be a teaching assistant in ball games. I think I'm the right ne fr the jb.
First, I'm interested in ball games. I like basketball a lt and ften play basketball with my friends. I'm als gd at different ball games. Secnd, I can help the teacher in sme ways, like planning ball games and answering sme questins frm students. Third, I'm utging and I like children. I will make friends with them. This will als help me d the jb well.
If I can get the jb, I will d my best. Hpe t hear frm yu sn. Yu can als call me at 103-5678. Many thanks!
Yurs,
Zhu Ming
【听力材料】
第一节:听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.M: Kate, can yu see any glves and hats in the lst and fund bx?
W: N, but I can see a scarf in it.
2.M: Are yu staying at hme at the mment, Lily?
W: Yes. It's raining s I am reading a magazine in my rm.
3.M: Lk! There is a pst ffice n the street.
W: Yes, my aunt wrks in it. And she meets lts f peple every day.
4.W: The meat is fresh and it is nt expensive. Fifteen yuan a kil. Wuld yu like sme?
M: OK. I'll take tw kils.
5.W: Tny, will there be taxi drivers in 20 years?
M: N, there wn't. Rbts will drive taxis.
第二节:听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你有时间阅读各小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题将有5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第8三个小题。
W: Bb, d yu have a plan fr tmrrw?
M: Yes. I am ging t visit my grandparents with my family.
W: D they live in the same city as yu?
M: N, they live n a farm near ur city.
W: Are yu ging t drive a car there?
M: Yes, my father is ging t drive my mther and me there.
W: When are yu ging back?
M: At abut 8:00 p.m.
听下面一段对话,回答第9至第11三个小题。
M: Hi, Lisa. Why are yu unhappy?
W: Because there are t many rules in my hme.
M: What are they? Can yu tell me?
W: I must get up at 6:00 a.m. and I have t make the bed. After dinner, I have t take the dg fr a walk.
M: Can yu g ut t play with yur friends after schl?
W: N, I can't. I can't g ut t play n schl days.
M: Oh, I'm srry t hear that. I think yu shuld have a gd talk with yur parents. By the way, what d yu usually d n weekends?
W: I usually g t the library t read bks with my cusin.
M: Can I jin yu this weekend?
W: Sure. Yu're welcme t jin us.
听下面一段独白,回答第12至第15四个小题。
My name is Peter. I am 14 years ld and I am frm Australia.I really lve music. As a student, I can play the erhu and the suna. I like singing very much and I want t be a singer. At the same time, I am very gd at playing basketball. I ften play basketball after a busy day at schl. Please lk at my new bike. My mther buys it fr me. And I will ride it t schl. I usually g t schl n ft. It takes me abut fifteen minutes. Tmrrw it will take me eight minutes t g t schl by bike. Nw it is half past seven in the evening. And it's time fr me t practice the erhu.
Are yu a music fan? If yes, cme and jin ur Music Festival between June 20, Thursday and June 23, Sunday. Here are different kinds f music fr yu t enjy!
COUNTRY MUSIC
Time: Thursday, 7 p.m.- 9 p.m.
Place: the City Hall
Price: Adults: $20; Children: $10
FOLK MUSIC
Time: Friday, 5 p.m.- 7 p.m.
Place: the King Park
Price: Free fr all
JAZZ MUSIC
Time: Saturday, 6 p.m.- 8 p.m.
Place: the Red Star Square
Price: Adults: $40; Children: $20
ROCK MUSIC
Time: Sunday, 7 p.m.- 9 p.m.
Place: the Sprts Hall
Price: Adults: $30; Children: $15
Fr mre infrmatin, please call Mary at 635-8899.