浙江省“山海联盟”2024-2025学年七年级下学期期中 (学生版)英语试卷

这是一份浙江省“山海联盟”2024-2025学年七年级下学期期中 (学生版)英语试卷，共13页。
第一节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
( )1.Which sprt des the by like best?
A.Basketball.B.Ftball.C.Table tennis.
( )2.Hw will the wman get t Shanghai?
A.By plane.B.By train.C.By bus.
( )3.What wuld David like t eat fr dinner?
A.Muttn.B.Beef.C.Chicken.
( )4.What time did Jack and Bill meet yesterday mrning?
A.At 9:40.B.At 9:55.C.At 9:25.
( )5.Wh might be the speakers?
A.A teacher and a student.B.A sister and a brther.C.Tw friends.
第二节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
( )6.What are Lisa and Mike talking abut?
A.Ding hmewrk.B.Making plans.C.Feeding animals.
( )7.Where will they meet?
A.At the park gate.B.At the z gate.C.At the schl gate.
听下面一段较长对话,回答第8至第10三个小题。
( )8.What was the final scre f the basketball game?
A.78:65.B.80:75.C.75:68.
( )9.What d the speakers think f Lin Ta?
A.Amazing.B.Brave.C.Nervus.
( )10.Hw did the team win the game?
A.They cheered ludly.B.They always stayed cl.C.They supprted each ther.
第三节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白,回答第11至第15五个小题。
( )11.Where des Paul wrk?
A.In a bank. B.In a university. C.In a hspital.
( )12.Wh did Paul g n a bike trip with?
A.His friend. B.His brther. C.His sn.
( )13.When did they leave hme?
A.On July 1st. B.On July 15th. C.On July 31st.
( )14.What was the weather like n the third day?
A.It was rainy. B.It was sunny. C.It was windy.
( )15.Hw lng did it take them t get t Nanjing?
A.Five days. B.Seven days. C.Ten days.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Frm Feb 7 t 14, Harbin hsted the Asian Winter Games. It was an amazing winter sprts “party” fr Asian sprtspeple. And many ther big sprting events are cming up this year.
( )16.Hw lng did the Asian Winter Games last?
A.6 days. B.8 days. C.9 days. D.10 days.
( )17.What makes China’s 15th Natinal Games special?
A.It will be held in winter.
B.It’s the smallest sprting event in China.
C.It will have mre sprts than the Olympic Games.
D.It’s the first time fr Hng Kng and Maca t hst it tgether.
( )18.What is the text?
A.A news reprt. B.A bk review. C.A children’s stry. D.A festival pster.
B
Uncle Peter used t be a happy-g-lucky man. But he had three bad years after divrcing (与……离婚) his wife.
One mrning, Uncle Peter thught t himself, “I’m nt ging t have anther bad year.” He started t play upbeat music, went back t schl and changed his jb. He als started ding exercise and spent (花费) a lt f time with his friends.
As a yung teenager, I learned that being happy is a chice. It desn’t cme frm what thers want yu t d. It’s smething that yu d. A happy life is made up f different experiences that make yu feel gd inside.
Being clse t thers is the mst imprtant thing fr being happy. Yu can try spending time with yur friends r parents. Studies shw that sleep can als make yu happy. This means sleeping seven t nine hurs every night. Exercise helps as well. Yu d nt need t d a lng exercise. Just mve fr 15 minutes a day, and yu will feel better. There are many ther ways t make yurself feel happy, like helping thers. The easy way t be happier is: Spend time ding things yu really enjy ding.
( )19.Why des Uncle Peter feel sad fr three years?
A.Because he gt divrced.
B.Because he went back t schl.
C.Because he lst his jb.
D.Because he didn’t want t d much exercise.
( )20.Which wrd has the same meaning as the underlined wrd “upbeat” in Paragraph 2?
A.Psitive. B.Sad. C.Lud. D.Mdern.
( )21.What did the writer learn frm Uncle Peter?
A.N ne can be happy all the time.B.Being happy is a persn’s chice.
C.It’s nice t make thers happy.D.Mney helps make peple happy.
( )22.What is the last paragraph mainly abut?
A.What happiness means t different peple.B.Why peple’s feelings change ver time.
C.Hw peple studied happiness in the past.D.What peple can d t live a happy life.
C
A mther and her sn were playing utside. The little by saw an apple stre and asked his mther t buy him sme apples. The mther didn’t have a lt f mney, but she had enugh t get a few. S, she bught tw apples fr her sn.
The sn held ne apple in each hand. His mther then asked if he culd share ne with her. Withut thinking twice, the by tk a bite (咬一口) frm each apple befre his mther culd even say a wrd.
The mther was surprised and her smile was sn gne. She started t think if she was smehw wrng t teach her sn abut sharing. She felt a little sad, thinking, “Maybe he was t yung t understand these things.”
But then, her sn, hlding ne apple, said, “ ▲ It’s the juicier (更多汁的) and sweeter ne.” Hearing that, the mther culdn’t say a wrd. She felt bad fr thinking f her sn that way. Her smile came back at nce.
( )23.What did the little by want his mther t d in Paragraph 1?
A.T play with him utside.B.T lk fr an apple stre.
C.T buy him sme apples.D.T give him sme mney.
( )24.Which f the fllwing sentences can be put in the blank “ ▲ ” in the text?
A.Mum, yu can have this ne.B.Mum, I dn’t want these apples.
C.Mum, I will eat bth f them.D.Mum, yu can buy mre apples.
( )25.Hw did the mther’s feelings change in the stry?
A.sad → happy → nervus B.surprised → sad → happy
C.excited → sad → happy D.happy → nervus → sad
( )26.What lessn can we learn frm the stry?
A.We shuld always buy apples fr children.
B.Sharing is nt an easy thing fr little kids t learn.
C.Mney shuldn’t stp us frm buying fruits.
D.We shuldn’t judge (判断) thers t quickly.
D
T get up n time, sme f us may set many alarms fr the mrning. But this can be bad fr ur health because it makes ur REM sleep prer.
REM, r rapid eye mvement sleep (快速眼动睡眠), is usually the last part f ur sleep. During REM, ur eyes mve quickly frm side t side, and we have mst f ur dreams.
REM sleep is very imprtant. It helps the brain (大脑) learn and remember new things. When we get enugh REM sleep, we can study r wrk better the next day.
This means it’s best t set nly ne alarm. Yu can als try sme ther alarms. These alarms d nt make nise. They wake yu up by changing the light in the rm.
Our sleep cycles (周期)
A gd sleep happens in cycles. Each cycle has fur parts. Here are the ther three parts befre REM sleep.
●Part 1: This is light sleep. Our bdy relaxes and ur heart slws dwn.
●Part 2: We fall mre deeply int sleep. Our eyes stp mving and ur bdy becmes cler.
●Part 3: We sleep the deepest. This is the mst difficult part t wake up frm.
( )27.Why is it a bad idea t set many alarms fr the mrning?
A.Because yu cannt hear all f them.B.Because this is nt helpful at all.
C.Because it is nt gd fr ur health.D.Because it makes ur REM sleep lnger.
( )28.What d we knw abut REM sleep frm Paragraph 2?
A.Our eyes dn’t mve during REM.
B.It is the first part f sleep.
C.Mst dreams happen during this part.
D.Peple pen their eyes frm time t time.
( )29.REM sleep helps the brain .
A.grw bigger B.wake up earlier
C.relax mreD.learn new things
( )30.What’s the best title fr the text?
A.One alarm is better than manyB.REM sleep is imprtant
C.Let’s set many alarmsD.A gd sleep happens in cycles
第二节 任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,从方框中所给的A—E五个选项中选出正确选项(其中一项是多余选项),将其序号填入第31~34小题,并回答第35小题。注意:请将第35小题的答案写在答题卷上非选择题部分的相应位置。
Healthy eating
Jack: Hi, Lily! Yu dn’t lk well. What’s the matter?
Lily: Hi, Jack! I feel tired these days.
Jack: That’s nt gd. Maybe it’s because f yur diet. 31. ▲
Lily: Well, I ften eat lts f fast fd, like fried chicken and French fries. They’re yummy.
Jack: I knw they taste gd, but eating t much fast fd isn’t healthy. 32. ▲ They can keep yur bdy strng and healthy.
Lily: Yeah, yu’re right. But I’m always busy with my study and I dn’t have time t ck.
Jack: Yu can eat sme simple healthy snacks. Fr example, yu can have vegetable salad. 33. ▲
Lily: That’s a great idea! But smetimes I just want t eat junk fd (垃圾食品).
Jack: It’s OK t have junk fd smetimes, but nt t much. Yu shuld als d mre exercise. 34. ▲
Lily: OK, I’ll try. Thanks fr yur advice, Jack!
35.What d yu usually d t have a healthy diet? (不超过10词)
▲
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
On a sunny mrning, Sphia’s family were getting ready t g t a party. Sphia and her parents were all dressed in new clthes and walking t the gate. Just then, Sphia 36 . “Dear, what’s wrng?” Sphia’s father asked and felt 37 . “Dad, I can’t g tday. Lucy wants t cme and learn t make paper flwers this 38 .”
Sphia’s father said, “Dear, can’t yu 39 Lucy t make paper flwers anther day? The party is a 40 ne. It’s fr yur grandmther’s sixtieth birthday.” “N,” Sphia said, 41 her head. “Tw days ag, I made the 42 t her. I must wait fr her.”
After seeing 43 ff, Sphia went back t her rm. Time passed by. She waited 44 nn, but Lucy didn’t shw up (出现).
“Did Lucy 45 ?” Sphia’s father asked as sn as he came in the dr. “N, she didn’t,” Sphia said. Her father said with a sad vice, “It’s a pity yu didn’t 46 us. Hw 47 it is t be left n yur wn at hme.” “But I 48 feel very happy,” Sphia said with a 49 . “Why?” Her parents lked at her and didn’t understand it. “ 50 I kept my prmise,” Sphia said. Her parents smiled, t. They felt really prud f her.
( )B.walkedC.stppedD.remained
( )B.excitedC.angryD.happy
( )B.afternnC.eveningD.night
( )B.teachC.sendD.frget
( )B.gdC.specialD.funny
( )B.tuchingC.waving D.shaking
( )B.friendC.mistakeD.chice
( )B.herC.themD.us
( )B.untilC.befreD.at
( )B.cmeC.stayD.leave
( ) withB.lk frC.think f D.talk abut
( )B.nervusC.simpleD.lnely
( )B.stillC.nlyD.nearly
( )B.laughC.cry D.shut
( )B.BecauseC.SD.And
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
A.将方框中所给单词的适当形式填入短文中,每词仅用一次。
There was a study amng 200 teenagers in Zhejiang t find ut abut their hbbies. The results shwed sme interesting 51. ▲ . Mst teenagers used t play utdr games. But nw, they are mre interested in indr activities. 52. ▲ f them have hbbies, but the hbbies are quite 53. ▲ . Sme like music, and thers lve reading. One 13-year-ld by named Tm said he culd teach 54. ▲ t play the guitar. He practised it every day and he 55. ▲ he culd be a gd guitarist in the future. The study shws that having hbbies is imprtant fr teenagers, and each ne can find jy in their wn way.
B.阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
I wanted t be a dctr when I was a little kid. At that 56. ▲ (时刻), my grandfather gt ill. A dctr saved his life, and I was deeply mved.
57. ▲ (在……期间) my primary schl years, I began t read bks abut 58. ▲ (药物;医学). I 59. ▲ (决定) t study hard t make my dream cme true. In my 60. ▲ (意见,看法), dctrs bring hpes t the sick and their family.
61. ▲ (然而), the rad t becming a dctr is nt easy. I went nline and 62. ▲ (收集) a lt f infrmatin. Smetimes, I felt like giving up because the knwledge was t difficult. But I knew that if I kept ging, everything was 63. ▲ (可能的).
I kept studying hard, and 64. ▲ (最后), I gt int a gd medical schl. I am sure that all my hard wrk will 65. ▲ (引领) me t becme a great dctr ne day. I can’t wait t start helping peple!
第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词,或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Last Saturday was my 12th birthday. It was ne f my best 66. ▲ (memry). Many f my friends came t my party. It was 67. ▲ (real) a great day.
In the mrning, I gt up early. I put sme beautiful flwers and ballns n the table. I was very 68. ▲ (excite)! I was sure my friends wuld have a gd time 69. ▲ me. When my friends arrived, I said hell t 70. ▲ (they). We tk a lt f phts tgether. Then we started t play games. After that, it was time 71. ▲ (eat) the birthday cake! My mther brught ut a big cake. It lked 72. ▲ (nice). My friends sang the sng “Happy Birthday” fr me. I 73. ▲ (make) a wish and then we shared the cake. In the afternn, we were a little tired 74. ▲ very happy.
What 75. ▲ amazing party! I wuld always remember this special day.
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题,满分20分)
76.假设你所在的学校开展了以“What makes us happy?”为主题的调查,不同的学生有不同的看法。请你根据以下表格中的提示信息写一篇短文。
注意:
1.分别介绍Jeff和Betty的观点,并发表你自己的看法;
2.文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息;
3.词数80左右;标题和开头部分已给出,不计入总词数。
What makes us happy?
We had a discussin abut what makes us happy recently. Different students have different ideas.
▲
▲
▲
【参考答案】
第一部分 听力理解(共三节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
1.C 2.A 3.B 4.B 5.A
第二节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
6.B 7.B 8.A 9.A 10.C
第三节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
11.B 12.C 13.C 14.A 15.B
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
16.B 17.D 18.A 19.A 20.A 21.B 22.D 23.C 24.A 25.B
26.D 27.C 28.C 29.D 30.A
第二节 任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
31.B 32.A 33.C 34.E
35.One pssible versin: I usually eat all kinds f vegetables.
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
36.C 37.A 38.A 39.B 40.C 41.D 42.A 43.C 44.B 45.B
46.A 47.D 48.B 49.A 50.B
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
51.facts 52.All 53.different 54.himself 55.believed 56.mment 57.During 58.medicine 59.decided 60.pinin 61.Hwever 62.cllected 63.pssible 64.finally 65.lead
第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
66.memries 67.really 68.excited 69.with 70.them 71.t eat 72.nice 73.made 74.but 75.an
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题,满分20分)
One pssible versin:
What makes us happy?
We had a discussin abut what makes us happy recently. Different students have different ideas.
Jeff believes that travel makes him happy. Last summer vacatin, he went t Beijing fr a hliday. He visited the Great Wall and tasted lts f delicius fd. Jeff said he felt happy during the trip.
Betty thinks gd habits make her happy. She has many gd habits, such as ding sprts every day and never staying up late. These habits keep her healthy and energetic.
Fr me, helping thers can make me feel happy. Whenever I see a smile n smene’s face because f my help, I always have a sense f achievement and happiness.
【听力材料】
同学们,下面开始2024学年第二学期七年级英语听力测试,请做好准备。
第一节:听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.W: What’s yur favurite sprt?
M: Well, it’s hard t say. I like ftball, but I think I like table tennis best.
2.M: Yu are ging t Shanghai. Hw will yu get there?
W: I will fly there. It is fast.
3.W: David, what wuld yu like fr dinner, muttn r beef?
M: I’d like t eat sme beef. I think it’s very delicius.
4.W: Did yu and Jack meet at 9:40 at the train statin yesterday mrning, Bill?
M: N. Jack gt there fifteen minutes later.
5.W: Hi, Sam. I knw yu will g t Beijing tmrrw.
M: Yes, Mrs. Li. I’ll see my sister there.
第二节:听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
W: Hi, Mike! D yu have any plans fr next Saturday?
M: Nt really, Lisa. What abut yu?
W: I’m thinking abut ging t the z. There are many cute animals there. D yu want t cme with me?
M: Okay, that’s a gd idea. Where shall we meet?
W: What abut the z gate?
M: OK.
听下面一段较长对话,回答第8至第10三个小题。
W: Hi, Eric! Did yu watch ur basketball game tday?
M: Yes! It was s exciting!
W: What was the final scre?
M: We wn 78:65!
W: Ww, hw did yu win it?
M: Lin Ta scred 30 pints! He was amazing.
W: Oh, right! He’s ur star player. Did everyne play well?
M: Sme were nervus and didn’t stay cl at first, but we supprted each ther.
W: I’m prud f yu all!
第三节:听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白,回答第11至第15五个小题。
Hi, I’m Paul and I’m frty-five years ld. I am a teacher in a university. During the last summer hliday, I did smething special. I went n a bike trip t Nanjing with my fifteen-year-ld sn Bb. Bb was s excited abut the trip. We left hme n the last day f July. Everything went well n the first tw days. Hwever, the weather was rainy n the third day. S we had t stay in the htel and waited. The jurney was difficult and it tk us a week t get t Nanjing. Then we tured arund the city fr five days and visited many places f interest. Finally, we safely returned hme. We will never frget the trip because it means s much t us.
In April and May, watch Chinese table tennis players shw their amazing skills at the ITTF Wrld Cup and the Wrld Table Tennis Champinships.
Tennis stars shne at the Australian Open in January. And frm May t September, there will be mre exciting tennis matches at the French Open, Wimbledn Champinships and US Open.
Frm Aug 7 t 17, Chengdu will welcme mre than 5,000 sprtspeple frm ver 100 cuntries fr the 2025 Wrld Games. It takes place every fur years. This year, sprtspeple will be in 34 sprts. Yu can’t see mst f them in the Olympic Games, like flying disc (飞盘) and tug f war (拔河).
In Nvember, China’s 15th Natinal Games will take place in the Guangdng-Hng Kng-Maca Greater Bay Area. This time, it’s very special because Hng Kng and Maca are hsting it tgether fr the first time.
A.Yu shuld eat mre fruits and vegetables.
B.Maybe yu shuld change the way yu eat.
C.It’s easy t make and als healthy.
D.Eating junk fd t much is bad fr yu.
E.It can help yu keep a gd shape and feel better.
all himself different believe fact
Jeff
Travel makes Jeff happy.
went t Beijing, visited…, tasted delicius fd
Betty
Gd habits make Betty happy.
d sprts, never stay up late (熬夜)
Yu
make(s) me happy.
…