2025—2026年济南莱芜区九年级中考英语二模考试试题以及含答案

这是一份2025—2026年济南莱芜区九年级中考英语二模考试试题以及含答案，共10页。试卷主要包含了5 分，满分 7等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
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考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A. He went camping yesterday. B. She likes swimming. C. I play the guitar every day.
2.A. Keep yurself healthy. B. Be kind t thers. C. D chres by yurself.
3.A. She wn’t be late again. B. He didn’t give up easily. C. They dn’t like cld drinks.
4.A. Have yu cleaned the rm? B. Is Peter reading bks? C. Can he draw well?
5.A. Hw was yur weekend? B. Whse scarf is this? C. Why d yu like English?
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What des Tm think f the art shw?
A. Classical. B. Funny. C. Wnderful.
7. When des David usually have breakfast?
A. At 6:30. B. At 6:45. C. At 7:00.
8. Hw is the weather nw?
A. Cludy. B. Sunny. C. Rainy.
9. Where are the speakers?
A. At a bkstre. B. At a flwer shp. C. At a restaurant.
10. What’s the relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Classmates. B. Father and daughter. C. Teacher and student.
第三节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间，对话听两遍。
11. What des Lucy think f her trip?
A. Relaxing. B. Educatinal. C. Just s-s.
12. Hw did Lucy g t the village every weekend?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On ft.
13. Why did Lucy take part in the vlunteer prgram?
A. T plant trees. B. T pick up rubbish. C. T teach children English.
14. Wh did Jack g t Langma Muntain with?
A. His relatives. B. His friends. C. Sme middle schl students.
15. What are the tw speakers mainly talking abut?
A. Their favrite fd. B. Their summer vacatin. C. Their schl life.
第四节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. Where did Lucy find the ld pht?
A. In a bx. B. Under a bed. C. Behind a dr.
17. When did the stry behind the pht happen?
A. Last Friday. B. This week. C. Eight years ag.
18. Hw lng did it take Lucy t make the cake?
A. Fr abut 30 minutes. B. Fr abut 60 minutes. C. Fr abut 90 minutes.
19. What can we knw abut Lucy frm the stry?
A. She enjys cking. B. She lves her mther. C. She likes taking phts.
20. Why did Lucy write this letter?
A. T share her unfrgettable experience. B. T ask fr sme advice. C. T intrduce hw t make a cake.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解（共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分）
阅读下列短文，然后从每小题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
21.What can students d n the farm?
A. Design the garden. B. Care fr the animals. C. Clean the farmland. D. Pick fruit and vegetables.
22.When is it suitable t visit the farm?
A. On Wednesday in Octber. B. On Sunday in June.
C. On Saturday in May. D. On Mnday in February.
23.Hw much shuld a student pay fr a three-week visit?
A. 180 yuan. B. 200 yuan. C. 540 yuan. D. 600 yuan.
24.What can we learn abut the farm’s educatin team?
A. It can prvide fd fr students. B. It can prvide 3 hurs fr students.
C. It can give prizes t the grup members. D. It can receive all kids wh want t cme.
25.Where is this text prbably taken frm?
A. A news reprt. B. A stry bk. C. A science magazine. D. An advertisement.
B
I am a running lver. I usually run n the track in my neighburhd. Mst peple walk n the track, s I am faster than them. My speed seems amazing t the walkers and I ften pass by them twenty r mre times arund the track. This makes me feel prud.
One day, a shrt man came. He didn’t lk like much f a runner. I saw him get ut f the car and warm up befre running. We started running tgether, but sn he was a few meters ahead f me. He was fast, but I sped up and managed t catch up with him. After a lap (圈), hwever, I fell behind him and had great difficulty breathing. After tw laps, my ft began t hurt, s I had t slw dwn and began t run at my usual speed. This time I culd breathe again withut sunding like I had a lung disease (肺病) and the pain in my ft went away. In a very shrt time, he was far ahead. He was t fast fr me t fllw.
That day, I learned several lessns. In life, there will always be thse slwer and faster. Sme have natural talent, and sme have trained harder. Dn’t judge the capacity f a persn by hw he r she lks.
The pint is that we each have ur wn speed. When we are trying t keep up, we ften end up hurting urselves and being ut f breath. Slw dwn r speed up, but run yur race t yur best. Dn’t run fast when yu shuld be running slwly. Dn’t run at all when yu shuld be walking. Dn’t walk when yu shuld be running.
26.What was the authr’s first impressin f the shrt man?
A. He was an amazing runner. B. He was an experienced driver.
C. He wasn’t gd at running. D. He was t prud f himself.
27.Why did the authr have t slw dwn after tw laps?
A. He felt t prud t run faster. B. His ft started t hurt and he breathed hard.
C. The shrt man tld him t run slwly. D. He wanted t walk with ther peple.
28.What des the underlined wrd “capacity” prbably mean?
A. Ability. B. Jb. C. Attitude. D. Age.
29.Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut the shrt man?
A. He lked very strng and tall. B. He ran much faster than the writer.
C. He fell behind the writer at last. D. He stpped running after tw laps.
30.Which f the fllwing is the writer’s pinin in the last paragraph?
A. Running fast is the key t success in life. B. We shuld stp running when we feel tired.
C. Keeping up with thers can make us better. D. We shuld d things at ur wn prper speed.
C
The Yarlung Zangb River, China’s lngest plateau (高原) river, is the mst imprtant waterway in Xizang. Starting frm the Jima Yangzng Glacier n the Himalayas’ nrthern side, it runs thrugh several places in Xizang. Then it heads suth, finally flwing int the Indian Ocean. In China, it runs abut 2,057 kilmeters and hlds lts f water. In Xizang, the river helps farmers grw crps and als creates a huge, deep canyn (峡谷) near Nyingchi City, which is knwn as the wrld’s deepest canyn. This area is hme t many prtected animals.
On July 19, 2025, China started building a new hydrelectric prject (水利工程) which will use the river’s fast-flwing water t make electricity. Wrkers will build five small dams cnnected by lng tunnels (隧道) undergrund. These tunnels will carry water frm high places t lwer places, using the river’s natural drp f almst 2,000 meters t drive machines.
With a cst f 1.2 trillin yuan, the prject will take many years t cmplete. Once finished, it will prduce enugh electricity fr millins f hmes. And there are sme key facts shwing hw peple can use nature’s pwer withut hurting the envirnment. Smart Design: Engineers make the water drp 2,200 meters ver just 50 km t create strng pwer. Helping Nature: Special paths fr fish will be built, and enugh water will flw dwnstream t prtect animals and plants. Better Lives: It brings jbs fr 200,000 peple and gives Xizang 20 billin yuan each year fr schls, rads, and hspitals.
31.Which is the crrect rder f the Yarlung Zangb River’s jurney?
① Reaches the Indian Ocean. ② Ges acrss sme areas in Xizang.
③ Heads suth clse t Nyingchi. ④ Cmes frm Jima Yangzng Glacier.
A. ④ → ③ → ② → ① B. ① → ④ → ② → ③
C. ④ → ② → ③ → ① D. ② → ④ → ① → ③
32.Hw des the prject make pwer?
A. By building tunnels abve grund. B. By using the river’s natural drp t run machines.
C. By cnnecting machines t slw water. D. By digging tunnels t transprt animals.
33.What can we knw abut the prject’s design?
A. It can harm the canyn’s depth.
B. It fcuses nly n making electricity cheaply.
C. It changes the river’s natural flw cmpletely.
D. It balances pwer needs and nature prtectin.
34.In which way is the last paragraph mainly rganized?
A. By asking questins. B. By listing several parts with clear headings.
C. By telling stries. D. By shwing different pinins.
35.What can be a suitable title fr the text?
A. The Start f the Yarlung Zangb River
B. The Wrld’s Deepest Canyn in Xizang
C. Hw t Prtect the Envirnment in Xizang
D. A Green Hydrelectric Prject n the Yarlung Zangb River
D
These days, the term “AI+” (als knwn as the AI Plus Initiative) has becme a key part f ur cuntry’s develpment plans, and is frequently mentined in fficial papers like gvernment wrk reprts. Accrding t fficial explanatins, AI+ means putting artificial intelligence technlgy int different traditinal areas f life and wrk. AI systems can cllect and analyze (分析) large amunts f data quickly, and then make smart decisins r prvide helpful services—that’s what makes them “intelligent”. We can easily understand this idea with a simple frmula: AI+ Traditinal Area = Intelligent Imprvement. This technlgy is changing ur daily lives in many practical ways.
AI+ is especially influential in educatin and daily life. Fr example, in schls, AI can quickly check students’ hmewrk and papers acrss all subjects. It finds grammar mistakes in language lessns, calculatin mistakes in math and lgical prblems in argumentative essays, which helps us imprve ur learning efficiency greatly. AI+ als brings great cnvenience t ur daily life. AI-based campus systems can remind students f their class schedules and library bk return dates, while AI-led traffic apps help peple avid rush-hur jams with real-time rute updates. These typical examples shw hw AI+ imprves traditinal tls and makes ur study and life mre cnvenient.
Besides, AI+ plays an imprtant rle in key natinal areas. It is widely used in smart manufacturing t find prduct prblems autmatically, helping factries imprve prduct quality. It helps in smart healthcare t imprve dctrs’ diagnstic (诊断的) efficiency. It als wrks in envirnmental prtectin t watch pllutin all the time. As said in fficial plans, the gal is t let AI+ cver ver 70% f key areas by 2027, which will push ur sciety twards smarter develpment.
In shrt, AI+ is nt a tl t take the place f humans. Instead, it is a smart assistant that supprts peple in bth study and wrk. Learning abut AI+ can pen up technlgical views and encurage peple t keep learning new knwledge. While AI+ brings cnvenience, we als need t think abut hw t use it wisely. Let’s welcme this intelligent age t get ready fr a better future with AI+!
36.What can we learn abut AI systems frm paragraph 1?
A. They can hardly cllect infrmatin. B. They nly wrk in language learning
C. They can prcess data and ffer useful help D. They depend n humans t make decisins.
37.What is the main idea f paragraph 2?
A. The fficial definitin f AI+.
B. The future plan f AI+ develpment.
C. The applicatin f AI+ in natinal key areas.
D. The influence f AI+ n educatin and daily life.
38.Which f the fllwing is the exact use f AI+ in key natinal areas?
A. Check students’ hmewrk and papers quickly. B. Help imprve dctrs’ diagnstic efficiency. C. Remind students f library bk return dates. D. Watch pllutin nly during wrking hurs.
39.What is the purpse f mentining the 70% gal in paragraph 3?
A. T shw AI+ has n develpment space. B. T prve AI+ will be widely used in the future.
C. T explain hw AI+ wrks in healthcare. D. T cmpare AI+ with traditinal technlgy.
40.What is the writer’s attitude twards the use f AI+?
A. Supprtive. B. Wrried. C. Dubtful. D. Uncaring.
第二节 阅读七选五（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Everybdy knws that ding exercise ften helps us keep healthy. In the same way, ur brains need regular activities t stay sharp and wrk well. A new study tells us that prper brain training can imprve ur memry and thinking ability, and prevent ur brain frm getting weak as we grw lder.
It’s easy t train ur brains by breaking ur daily rutines. When we d the same daily tasks repeatedly, such as studying with the same plan r walking the same way, ur brains will gradually becme less active. 41. ______ Fr example, getting up 30 minutes earlier every day t read a new bk r draw a picture can make ur brain smarter. A study fund that students wh tried new habits twice a week gt better scres in thinking and memry tests.
Ging t new places is als a great way t exercise ur brains. 42 ______ Peple wh ften visit new places r try new hbbies have better memry than thers. Students can try this by taking a different way t schl, watching different plants n the street r listening t different sunds in the mrning.
We can als train ur brains by lking at things in a different way. When we see familiar things in a usual way, ur brain knws them quickly withut thinking. But if we turn these things upside dwn r put them in new places, ur brain has t think mre. 43. ______
Training ur brains is just like building ur bdy. It needs time and hard wrk. 44. ______ If we keep ding small brain exercises every day, ur thinking, memry and study skills will get much better slwly.
45.______ Even small changes in daily life can bring big prgress. Start yur brain training tday and be patient. Yu will see a better yurself sn.
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 35 分）
第一节 补全对话（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
阅读下面对话，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: Hi, Alice. Yu lk upset. What’s the matter?
B: Hi, Eric. The junir high schl will be ver sn, yu knw.
A: That’s true, Alice. 46
B: Wnderful. It has brught me a lt f gd memries.
A: Really? Wuld yu like t tell me smething abut yur special memries?
B: I’d lve t. I remember that I had truble learning English in Grade Seven. 47
A: It was exactly a prblem. Then hw did yu slve this prblem in the end?
B: 48 Thanks t his help, I fund the secret t English learning. I am s thankful. What abut yu? Wh is yur favurite teacher?
A: Well, I like my math teacher best.
B: Wh is yur math teacher?
A: Mr. Chen.
B: 49
A: He can always make his classes easy and interesting, s we all like his classes very much.
B: That’s why yu are s gd at math, I guess.
A: 50 He is a perfect teacher in my heart.
46.A. What can I d fr yu? B. Hw lng have yu been here?
C. Hw d yu like yur schl life? D. Where are yu ging t mve?
47.A. I was s wrried that I felt unhappy every day. B. I am really srry t hear that.
C. I can always get gd grades in English. D. I have imprved my English a lt.
48.A. I think it’s easy t learn English. B. Mr. King gave me much help.
C. I culd learn it by myself. D. I wrked really hard every day.
49.A. Why d yu like him? B. What d yu think f him?
C. Hw d yu knw that? D. What’s yur favurite subject?
50.A. It desn’t matter. B. N prblem. C. I’m nt sure. D. Of curse.
第二节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A little by used t walk with his father every day n a nearby hill.
One day the by said, “Dad, let’s have a race tday. The ne wh reaches the tp f the hill first 51 the race.” The father agreed.
Bth f them started running twards the hilltp. After running fr sme time, the father suddenly 52 .
The by asked, “What happened? 53 did yu stp? Have yu accepted yur failure already?”
“N, n. Sme pebbles (石子) gt stuck in my shes. I stpped t remve them,” the father replied.
The by said, “There are sme pebbles in my shes t. But 54 I stp nw, I will lse the race. Once I reach the tp, I will remve them.” Saying this, the by ran ahead 55 .
The by had gne far ahead but because f the pebbles 56 his shes he started feeling pain in his feet. And he started t lse speed.
Gradually, his father came clse t him.
Seeing his by, the father shuted frm 57 , “Why dn’t yu remve pebbles frm yur shes first?”
“But I dn’t have 58 fr this!” said the by.
After a while, his father vertk (超过) him.
The by’s pain had 59 a lt because f the pebbles. And nw he was nt even 60 t walk.
He stpped there and shuted, “Dad, I can’t run anymre.”
His father quickly ran back and 61 his sn’s shes carefully. He saw that the by’s 62 were hurt.
“Sn, I tld yu t first remve the pebbles and then cntinue the race.”
“But I will lse the race,” the by said.
“It is nt like that, sn! We shuldn’t put ff slving prblems in ur life by saying that we dn’t have time right nw. If we pay n attentin t them, they will gradually grw bigger and finally cause 63 mre harm than befre. It may just take yu ne 64 t remve the pebbles. But nw yu will have t bear pain fr ne week,” the father said.
Take cntrl f the prblem nly when it is 65 . Take it seriusly befre it becmes bigger and causes mre prblems.
51.A. begins B. wins C. watches D. rganizes
52.A. stpped B. std C. laughed D. mved
53.A. Hw B. Where C. What D. Why
54.A. if B. after C. thugh D. befre
55.A. slwly B. plitely C. rapidly D. silently
56.A. with B. fr C. n D. in
57.A. frnt B. abve C. behind D. utside
58.A. luck B. time C. chance D. curage
59.A. disappeared B. left C. included D. increased
60.A. ready B. able C. free D. afraid
61.A. tk ff B. put away C. lked fr D. handed ut
62.A. hands B. knees C. legs D. feet
63.A. her B. them C. us D. it
64.A. minute B. hur C. day D. mnth
65.A. hard B. small C. serius D. big
第三节 阅读填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Yang Changqin is a master bamb weaver wh turns heritage int a mdern business. She turned a childhd dream int a career. The 36-year-ld is nw a master Chishui bamb weaver, funder 66. ______ her brand Jizhu.
Brn in Guizhu, Yang lved handicrafts as a child. She 67. ______ (influence) by traditinal bamb weaving deeply, s at abut 18, she gave up her jb as a kindergarten teacher and decided t learn it. Bamb weaving uses bamb strips t make 68. ______ (use) and beautiful daily things. At first, it was 69. ______ very difficult jb. She tried hard t cntrl the knife and ften cut her hands. But she kept practicing and imprving 70. ______ the skills were just like her nature. Later, she created 3D skills and studied at art schls 71. ______ (imprve) her wrks with mdern ideas. In 2012, she set up her brand Jizhu. 72. ______ (it) prducts sn became ppular.
Nw her prducts sell well acrss the cuntry. She 73. ______ (win) many medals fr her great wrks s far. She wrks 74. ______ (careful) and als learns t manage her business. She hpes her business 75. ______ (bring) mre chances t lcal peple sn.
Yang encurages yung peple t pass n traditinal crafts. “Turn yur passin int a jb,” she said. Her lve fr the craft carried her thrugh all challenges.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节 情境运用（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.A: ________________________?
B: Yes, I have. I lve ding that with my family.
77.A: What’s the matter?
B: ________________________. I’ll never eat t much.
78.A: ________________________?
B: Every day. She thinks it’s gd fr her health.
79.A: What d yu want t be when yu grw up?
B: ________________________.
80.A: What shuld we d t save electricity?
B: ________________________.
第二节 作文（满分 25 分）
时光飞逝，难忘的初中生活结束后，你们将迎来一个轻松、愉快的假期。假定你是李华，你校英语报正在举行以 “暑期计划” 为主题的征文活动，请你根据思维导图，用英语写一篇文章投稿。
1.内容包括：
2.你的选择（至少两点）；
3.阐述理由。
要求：
1.要点齐全；
2.词数 100 词左右；
3.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。









2026 年初中学业水平阶段性质量监测二英语试题参考答案及听力原文
第一部分 听力部分
第一节 1-5 BABCA
第二节 6-10 CCABA
第三节 11-15 BACCB
第四节 16-20 ACCBA
第二部分 阅读
第一节 21-25 DACCD 26-30 CBABD 31-35 CBDBD 36-40 CDBBA
第二节 41-45 CFABD
第三部分 语言运用
第一节 46-50 CABAD
第二节 51-55 BADAC 56-60 DCBDB 61-65 ADCAB
第三节
66. f 67. was influenced 68. useful 69. a 70. until
71. t imprve 72. Its 73. has wn 74. carefully 75. will bring
评分意见:
本试题满分 150 分。
第 1-20 小题，每小题 1.5 分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第 21-45 小题，每小题 2 分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第 46-65 小题，每小题 1 分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第 66-75 小题，每小题 1.5 分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第四部分 写作（35 分）
第一节 情境运用（10 分）
76.Have yu (ever) made dumplings?
77.I have a stmachache.
78.Hw ften des she exercise?
79.I want t be a ck (when I grw up).
80.We shuld turn ff the lights when we leave the/a rm./Turn ff the lights (when we leave the/a rm).
评分说明：
A. 情境运用
和答案一致，得全分。
与答案不一致，但是无语法单词错误，也可得全分。
有以下的关键词之一，可以得 1 分。每小题的关键词如下：
Have yu; made dumplings
I; have a stmachache
Hw ften; des she; exercise
I; want t be; a ck
turn ff; lights;
第二节 作文（25 分）
My Summer Vacatin Plan
The summer vacatin is cming sn. T make my hliday meaningful, I have made a great plan.
First, I will keep ding sprts every day, such as running and swimming. It can help me keep healthy and relax my mind after busy schl life. Secnd, I plan t read mre bks in my free time. Reading pens my eyes and imprves my knwledge.
Besides, I will take part in sme vlunteer activities. I want t help thers and learn mre scial skills.
In a wrd, I believe I will have a wnderful and fruitful summer vacatin.
评分说明：
本大题共 25 分。
作文应覆盖所有内容要点。一个要点不全的扣 3 分，总分以 22 分阅。两个要点不全的扣 6 分，总分以 19 分阅。
单独写出一个要点的，即使句子有单词错误，也可以得 3 分，两个要点的得 6 分。不仅仅只看字数。
若卷面书写不工整，可酌情从总分中扣 1-2 分。单词有一处错误，酌情扣分（0.5-1 分）。相同单词错误不重复扣分。
作文可分为六个等级:
① 21-25 分：短文覆盖所有内容要点，语句自然流畅，全文结构紧凑，语言丰富地道，书写清晰工整，字数符合要求，语法错误较少 (1~3 处)，表现出较强的语言运用能力，完全达到预期写作目的。
② 16-20 分：短文基本覆盖所有内容要点，语句较流畅，全文结构较紧凑，语言准确，书写工整，字数符合要求，语法错误较少 (4~5 处)，表现出一定的语言运用能力，达到预期写作目的。
③ 11-15 分：短文覆盖主要内容，语句尚通顺，内容较连贯，书写较工整，语法错误较多，字数在 80 词左右，基本达到预期写作目的。
④ 6-10 分：短文漏掉一些内容要点，有些内容与主题无关，语句不够通顺，语法错误较多，影响了对写作内容的理解，书写一般，字数在 40 词以下，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
⑤ 1-5 分：明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容，偏离主题，语法结构或词汇方面的错误较多，词不达意。
⑥ 0 分：空白卷；所写内容全部与主题无关；全部抄袭试卷阅读部分的语段；全部来自日常单元习作的范文，没有自己的语言。
听力原文（节选）
第一部分 听力测试（共 20 小题，计 30 分）
第一节 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.She likes swimming.
2.Keep yurself healthy.
3.He didn’t give up easily.
4.Can he draw well?
5.Hw was yur weekend?
第二节 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6.W: What d yu think f the art shw last night, Tm?
M: It’s fantastic. We saw s many creative wrks.
7.W: David, what time d yu usually get up?
M: I usually get up at a quarter t seven in the mrning. I ften have breakfast 15 minutes later.
8.W: Lk at the sky. It lks gray.
M: Yeah. It may rain sn.
W: Let’s stay at hme tday.
9.W: I need these red rses fr my mther’s birthday. Hw much are they?
M: They are 50 yuan.
W: OK. I’ll take them.
10.W: We can’t eat in the classrm, talk in class r listen t music in class.
M: Sunds strict. But as students, we shuld fllw the rules. Teachers make them t help us.
第三节 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
M: Hi, Lucy! Lng time n see. Did yu have a gd trip this summer?
W: Yes, it was educatinal.
M: Where have yu been?
W: I’ve been t a muntain village in the suthern muntains f Jinan.
M: Hw far is it frm yur hme?
W: It’s abut 15 kilmeters. I tk part in a three-week vlunteer prgram there t teach children English. I tk a bus t g there every weekend.
M: Sunds interesting. Mre and mre yung peple spend their vacatin helping thers fr free.
W: Being a vlunteer is great! Have yu ever dne vlunteer wrk, Jack?
M: Yes. I went t Langma Muntain this summer vacatin with a grup f middle schl students. We went there by bike.
W: What did yu d there?
M: We planted trees and picked up rubbish.
W: Ww, that’s really meaningful!
第四节 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
Dear Mike,
I’m glad t receive yur letter and knw yur unfrgettable experience. Nw I’d like t share mine. Last Friday, I was cleaning my rm and fund an ld pht in a bx. While I was lking at it, the lvely memry f that day came back t me.
It was my mther’s birthday eight years ag, and I decided t give her a surprise with a hme-made birthday cake. I gt up early and quietly went t the kitchen. I spent abut ne and a half hurs making it, but I still failed.
The mment I was ging t thrw everything away, my mther came in. I shwed her the cake and tld her what happened. Surprisingly, she tasted it and said it wasn’t bad! She smiled warmly and lked happy. In fact, we ended up laughing and ate it up.
This week is her fiftieth birthday. I will make a birthday cake fr her again, and this time I will make it.
I’m lking frward t yur reply!
Yurs,
Lucy
A. This simple change can make ur brain mre active and help it grw well.
B. We can’t get gd results in a shrt time.
C. Hwever, trying new and different activities can make ur brains wrk actively.
D. Remember that brain training is nt hard but needs patience.
E. Ding the same things fr lng can make peple feel bred and tired.
F. Visiting new places can help us imprve ur memry a lt.
G. It is nt easy fr students t keep gd living and studying habits.