2025年山东省聊城市中考英语真题（试卷+解析）

这是一份2025年山东省聊城市中考英语真题（试卷+解析），共9页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，完形填空，阅读理解，语法填空，阅读表达，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
（考试时间：120分钟 满分：120分）
选择题（三大题，共计80分）
一、听力测试（共30小题；每小题1分，满分30分）
第一节 听下面10个小对话。每个对话后面有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每个对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个对话仅读一遍。
1. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A. In a shp. B. In a restaurant. C. In a pst ffice.
2. What will the wman buy?
A. A pair f shes. B. A pair f glves. C. A pair f trusers.
3. What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
A. Wrks. B. Prizes. C. An actr.
4. Wh did Lisa help last week?
A. Her mther. B. A stranger. C. Her friend.
5. What des the wman want t be in the future?
A. A driver. B. A teacher. C. An engineer.
6. Where is Bb prbably?
A. At hme. B. At schl. C. At Mrs Green’s huse.
7. What’s the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
A. Husband and wife. B. Dctr and patient. C. Brther and sister.
8. What is Alan ding?
A. Sleeping. B. Listening t the radi. C. Playing cmputer games.
9. Wh did Sam g t the theatre with last night?
A. Jack. B. David. C. Bruce.
10. Where des the man want t g?
A. T the bkshp. B. T the factry. C. T the City Library.
第二节 听下面四段对话。每段对话后各有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第11至13题。
11. When des the cnversatin take place?
A. In the mrning. B. In the afternn. C. In the evening.
12. What is Jim’s hbby?
A. Writing. B. Painting. C. Gardening.
13. What has Jim planted?
A. Trees and flwers.
B. Vegetables and trees.
C. Flwers and vegetables.
听下面一段对话，回答第14至17题。
14. Where did Tina g last weekend?
A. T the beach. B. T the West Hill. C. T the cuntryside.
15. Where did Tina and her friends stay?
A. In a htel. B. In their cars. C. In the tents.
16. When did Tina get hme?
A At 6:00. B. At 6:30. C. At 9:30.
17. What did Ted d last weekend?
A. Watched a film. B. Read a bk. C. Did sme husewrk.
听下面一段对话，回答第18至21题。
18. Wh went t see Maria’s schl?
A. Betty. B. Eric. C. Tm.
19. Hw many students are there in Maria’s schl?
A. Abut 30. B. Abut 300. C. Abut 500.
20. Hw d English students sit in the classrm?
A. In rws. B. On the grund. C. Arund tables.
21. What d English kids really enjy?
A. Swimming. B. Playing ftball. C. Playing basketball.
听下面一段对话，回答第22至25题。
22. What’s the date tday?
A. September 8th. B. September 9th. C. September 10th.
23. What will the speakers d?
A. Buy sme flwers. B. Make greeting cards. C. Hld a surprise party.
24. Where will the speakers meet this afternn?
A. In the classrm. B. In the playgrund. C. In the meeting rm.
25 Hw lng will it take the speakers t finish the preparatin?
A. Half an hur. B. One and a half hurs. C. Tw and a half hurs.
第三节 听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。该段独白读两遍。
26. Where did the pilt want t fly?
A. T Paris. B. T New Yrk. C. T Lndn.
27. When was the plane cmpleted?
A. In 1919. B. In 1927. C. In 1975.
28. What kind f weather did the pilt experience?
A. Freezing weather and fg.
B. Warm weather and fg.
C. Cld weather and snw.
29. Hw did the pilt feel when he arrived?
A. Very sad. B. Very nervus. C. Very happy.
30. What can we knw abut the pilt?
A. He flew fr mre than tw days.
B. He slept fr a while in his plane.
C. He became a her in America and in France.
二、完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Everyne admires (崇拜) heres. When we are asked wh are ur heres, smene well-knwn like Yang Liwei r Zhng Nanshan may cme int ur mind. They make a big difference t the wrld. Hwever, there are “everyday” heres in ur daily life. They may nt be s famus t the public, ____1____ these cmmn peple are als wrking hard t build a better wrld. Sun Jun is amng them.
Sun Jun cmes frm a pr ____2____. The villagers used t have n enugh fd. He learned t save fd at his ____3____ age. When he was a cllege student, he fund that the prblem f fd waste was mre and mre serius.
After graduating (毕业), Sun Jun jined a vlunteer rganizatin (组织) called Green Fd Bank. The purpse f the rganizatin is t build a ____4____ between peple wh are ready t help thers and thse wh are in need. It ____5____ by cllecting and prviding free fd fr the pr, the disabled and s n.
Sun’s team ____6____ a phne app. It can shw hw much fd restaurants remain (剩余) each day. They ____7____ g there t get the fd fr free. Then it can be given ut in just a few hurs.
S far, Sun and his team have dne ____8____ meaningful t the sciety. On the ne hand, they’ve saved a lt f fd. On the ther hand, they’ve helped sme peple successfully.
____9____ des Sun d all these things? He says, “Thanks t Grandpa Yuan Lngping, we are almst n lnger shrt f fd. We need t think abut hw t stp _____10_____. There’s a lng way t g, but I wn’t give up halfway. It’s just the beginning. We still have much t d.”
1. A. sB. rC. but
2. A. twnB. villageC. city
3. A. earlyB. middleC. ld
4. A. huseB. bridgeC. wall
5. A. changesB. givesC. wrks
6. A. refusedB. develpedC. brke
7. A. usuallyB. neverC. seldm
8. A. nthingB. everythingC. smething
9. A. WhyB. HwC. Where
10. A. cllectingB. wastingC. saving
三、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容判断其后所给句子的对错。
Experts (专家) at the University f Edinburgh studied the relatinship between music and remembering a freign language. They fund that remembering wrds in singing was the best way t remember even ne f the mst difficult languages.
The experts gt the result by ding an experiment. They invited 60 peple and divided them int three grups f 20. Then they asked the three grups f peple t study wrds frm the Hungarian (匈牙利的) language. Why Hungarian, yu ask? The experts said they chse Hungarian because nt many peple knew the language.
All three grups studied the Hungarian language fr 15 minutes. The scientists asked them t learn in three different ways. They asked the first grup t simply speak the wrds. They let the secnd grup speak the wrds t a rhythm (节奏). And they asked the third grup t sing the wrds. Then the three grups f peple jined in a few language tests t see what they remembered. The grup f peple wh learned the Hungarian wrds by singing them did better than the thers. They did the best in fur ut f five f the tests. They als did tw times better than thse wh simply learned the wrds by speaking them.
Dr Katie Overy was ne f the experts wh did the experiment. She thught the findings culd help thse wh try t learn freign languages. “The brain seems t like music, especially fr remembering,” she said.
S, the next time yu study fr a language test, try t sing ut what yu need t remember.
11. Experts fund that singing the wrds was the best way t learn a freign language.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
12. Eighty peple tk part in the experiment.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
13. Each grup learned the wrds in a different way.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
14. The secnd grup f peple did better than the thers.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
15 The writer suggests speaking the wrds when yu study fr a language test.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
第二节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能回答所提问题 或能完成所给句子的最佳选项。
A
16. Yu can visit Hngkun Museum f Fine Art every day EXCEPT ________.
A. MndayB. WednesdayC. FridayD. Sunday
17. Where is Sifang Art Museum?
A. In Xi’an.B. In Suzhu.C. In Beijing.D. In Nanjing.
18. One can ________ in Tangb Art Museum.
A. learn sculptureB. learn paper-cut
C. shw his wrksD. visit Lin Fengmian’s artwrks
19. When did Six Arts Museum pen?
A. In 2000.B. In 2014.C. In 2018.D. In 2020.
20. Which museum has the lngest pening hurs n Tuesday?
A. Six Arts Museum.B. Sifang Art Museum.
C. Tangb Art Museum.D. Hngkun Museum f Fine Art.
B
Lan Huiyun is a gegraphy teacher frm Shuzhu, Shanxi Prvince. After his students finished the gaka f 2024, he and 13 f his students experienced a special jurney. He and his students finally reached Qinghai Lake in Qinghai Prvince after riding abut 2,000 kilmetres in 18 days.
They set ff frm their schl. And befre arriving in Qinghai, they passed thrugh Shanxi, Inner Mnglia, Ningxia and Gansu.
In early May 2024, Lan began t plan this jurney. In rder t make sure f the students’ safety, Lan helped them d sme training in riding. Hwever, they als faced many difficulties n the jurney. “When I nticed the students were tired r felt dwn, I wuld give them sme snacks r tell them a jke t encurage them t mve frward,” he said. “Luckily, all f us persisted (坚持) and finally reached Qinghai Lake.”
In fact, it was nt the first time that Lan had rganized such a jurney fr his students after the gaka. In 2016, he and his 7 students rde frm Shuzhu t Manzhuli. And in 2019, he and his 11 students spent 16 days riding frm Shuzhu t Shanghai.
Thrugh the trips, Lan hpes the students will experience real life and learn hw t deal with difficulties. “I have never thught that a teacher shuld nly teach thrugh bks,” he said, “I’d like t bring mre students t ride in the future.”
21. Hw did Lan Huiyun and his students reach Qinghai Lake?
A. By bus.B. By bike.C. By train.D. By plane.
22. Hw lng did the jurney t Qinghai Lake take?
A. 11 days.B. 13 days.C. 16 days.D. 18 days.
23. What did Lan Huiyun d n the jurney in 2024?
A. He planned the next jurney.
B. He helped the students d sme training.
C. He gave the students sme water t drink.
D. He encuraged the students t mve frward.
24. What’s the crrect rder f the fllwing things?
①Lan and his students gt t Shanghai.
②Lan and his students arrived in Manzhuli.
③Lan and his students reached Qinghai Lake.
④Lan began t plan the jurney t Qinghai Lake.
A. ①③②④B. ③④①②C. ②①④③D. ④③①②
25. What’s the best title (题目) fr this passage?
A. A special jurneyB. The advantages f riding
C. Hw t deal with difficultiesD. An experience befre the gaka
C
China is actively wrking t help peple cntrl their weight and live healthier lives. The gvernment started a three-year weight-cntrl plan frm 2024 t 2027 t fight against besity. Obesity can cause serius health prblems like diabetes (糖尿病) and heart disease. Here’s what yu shuld knw abut the new guidelines (指导纲领).
First, it’s imprtant t check yur BMI (身体质量指数). Fr adults (成年人), a healthy BMI is between 18.5 and 24. If yur BMI is between 24 and 28, yu are verweight. 28 r abve means besity.
Bth eating well and exercise are imprtant. Chse healthy fds like brwn rice, fresh vegetables, fish, chicken and beans. Stay away frm fried and sugary treats (甜食), and als eat less salt and il. Surprisingly, lcal favrites like Nrtheast China’s stewed fish (炖鱼) and Nrthwest China’s chili-il ndles (油泼面) are part f the healthy eating list.
Fr exercise try t d 150—300 minutes f activities like walking r dancing weekly, and d strength training twice a week. Fr example, if yu study fr lng, stand up and exercise fr 3—5 minutes every hur. Shanghai schls nw make sure students exercise fr at least tw hurs daily.
Small daily habits can als make a big difference. Teens (青少年) shuld get eight hurs’ sleep every night because bad sleep can make yu increase weight. Try t eat vegetables first, then meat, and finally rice r bread during a meal t cntrl hw much yu eat. In shrt, small changes like chsing water instead f cla r taking stairs can lead t a healthier yu.
26. If a man’s BMI is ________, it means he is healthy.
A. 22. 5B. 25C. 28D. 33
27. What des the underlined wrd “besity” mean in Chinese?
A. 疾病B. 失眠C. 肥胖D. 孤独
28. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. Eat fried and sugary treats.
B. Take stairs instead f taking lifts.
C. Try t eat rice first, then meat and finally vegetables.
D. Schls all ver China nw make sure students get tw hurs’ exercise a day.
29. What des the passage mainly talk abut?
A. Only develping daily habits.
B. Better eating and less exercise.
C. Paying n attentin t yur BMI.
D. Helping Chinese cntrl weight and live healthier lives.
30. The passage abve can prbably be fund in the part f ________ in a newspaper.
A. CultureB. HealthC. BusinessD. Technlgy
非选择题（三大题，共计40分）
四、语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处按要求填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。每空1个单词。
The Yi New Year is a ppular festival fr the Yi ethnic grup (彝族) in Sichuan, Yunnan, Guizhu and Guangxi. It ____31____ (fall) n a day arund Nvember 20 every year. There are many traditinal practices (习俗) f the festival.
When the festival draws near, the Yi peple will start huse cleaning. They think that cleaning can help them get rid f bad things in the huse and bring gd ____32____ (luck) t them. They als put firewd (木柴) in frnt f ____33____ (they) huses. They believe that the height f the firewd shws the hard wrk they have ____34____ (d) in the past year and is als a symbl f a happy life in the new year.
On the eve f the Yi New Year, family members cme tgether t have a big dinner.
On ____35____ (冠词) day f the festival, the yung Yi peple wear their ethnic dresses and g t a muntainside. They jin in traditinal activities f the lcal New Year. Merqiu (磨尔秋), a seesaw-like (像跷跷板一样的) swing activity, is ne f the mst ppular ____36____ (game) amng the Yi peple.
New Year’s activities wuld nt be cmplete (完整的) ____37____ (介词) visiting relatives r friends. The Yi peple usually get gifts ready a few days earlier ____38____ (连词) they g fr a visit.
The Yi peple lve these practices ____39____ (deep) and have been trying t pass them dwn. These practices shw the Yi peple’s way f life and their gd wishes fr a _____40_____ (gd) life than befre.
五、阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据其内容完成后面各项任务。
Many students ask fr advice abut hw t imprve their English. Here are three basic questins.
The first questin is abut understanding English films and sngs. Li Ha frm Hubei wrte, “I like watching English films and listening t English sngs, but I dn’t understand very much. What can I d?”
Watching films and listening t sngs are great ways t learn English! Watch and listen several times, and guess the meaning f the new wrds. Each time yu will learn smething new. I als advise yu t talk abut the films r sngs with yur friends in English.
The secnd questin is abut speaking. Wang Fan frm Jilin wrte, “ur schl has a teacher frm the US. I am shy and I am afraid t speak t her. What shuld I d?”
Yu can say, “Hell, hw are yu?” “D yu like China?” These are gd ways t start a cnversatin. And befre yu begin,yu shuld smile at her! Remember this: D nt be shy. Just try.
The third questin is abut vcabulary. Zhang Lei frm Anhui wrte, “I write dwn new wrds, but I frget them quickly. Hw can I remember them?”
D nt wrry. 忘记新单词是很正常的! I suggest yu write fur r five wrds a day n pieces f paper and place them in yur rm. Read the wrds when yu see them, and try t use them.
41. 从文中找出与下面所给句子意思相近的句子。
Lts f students want t knw hw t make prgress in their English.
______________________________________________
42. 将文中画线的英语句子译成汉语。
______________________________________________
43. 回答问题：
Accrding t the passage, what shuld yu d befre starting a cnversatin with a stranger?
______________________________________________
44. 回答问题：
What des the underlined wrd “them” refer t (指代)?
______________________________________________
45. 将文中画线的汉语句子译成英语。
______________________________________________
六、书面表达（满分20分）
46. 2016年我国颁布实施了《全国环境宣传教育工作纲要》，提出在全国逐步开展创建“绿色学校”活动。请你根据下面的提示，用英语写一篇短文，谈谈创建“绿色学校”可采取什么措施以及你对创建“绿色学校”的看法。
提示：
1. 每个班都收集可回收利用的废品，然后用卖废品的钱去帮助贫困地区的学生。
2. 学生学会家庭节约能源的方法，并使用它们以减少浪费。
3. 你对创建“绿色学校”的看法。
注意：
1. 短文词数：80左右。
2. 短文必须包含以上内容，但可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
3. 文中不得出现真实人名和地名。
4. 短文的开头部分已给出，不计入总词数。
In rder t create a green schl, __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Hngkun Museum f Fine Art
Opening Time: 10:00 am—6:00 pm (Mnday clsed)
Hngkun Museum f Fine Art is a centre f the exhibitin, cllectin (收藏品) and research f art. Since its pening in 2014, it has cllected hundreds f artwrks, including wrks f famus artists such as Lin Fengmian, Xu Beihng and Wu Guanzhng.
Address: N. 42, West Dawang Rad, Beijing
Sifang Art Museum
Opening Time: 10:00 am—5:00 pm (Mnday clsed)
Sifang Art Museum is ne f the mst beautiful art museums in China. It lies in muntains and it als has a lake area. Its great envirnment helps many architects (建筑师) and artists develp and shw their wrks there.
Address: N. 9, Zhenqi Rad, Nanjing
Tangb Art Museum
Opening Time: 9:00 am—4:30 pm
Built in 2000, Tangb Art Museum has a cllectin f Shaanxi flk art (陕西民间艺术) and histrical (历史题材的) paintings. If they are nt fr yu, yu can jin in ther cultural experiences such as learning paper-cut r traditinal Chinese painting.
Address: N. 26, Gngyuan Suth Rad, Xi’an
Six Arts Museum
Opening Time: 9:30 am—4:30 pm
In 2018, Six Arts Museum in the water twn f Lili pened. The amazing flk art museum helps save traditinal Chinese artwrks and shws sculptural and architectural (雕塑的和建筑学的) artwrks frm all ver China.
Address: N. 1, Renmin East Rad, Suzhu
聊城市2025年初中学生学业水平考试
英语试题
（考试时间：120分钟 满分：120分）
选择题（三大题，共计80分）
一、听力测试（共30小题；每小题1分，满分30分）
第一节 听下面10个小对话。每个对话后面有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每个对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个对话仅读一遍。
1. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A. In a shp. B. In a restaurant. C. In a pst ffice.
2. What will the wman buy?
A. A pair f shes. B. A pair f glves. C. A pair f trusers.
3. What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
A. Wrks. B. Prizes. C. An actr.
4. Wh did Lisa help last week?
A. Her mther. B. A stranger. C. Her friend.
5. What des the wman want t be in the future?
A. A driver. B. A teacher. C. An engineer.
6. Where is Bb prbably?
A. At hme. B. At schl. C. At Mrs Green’s huse.
7. What’s the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
A. Husband and wife. B. Dctr and patient. C. Brther and sister.
8. What is Alan ding?
A. Sleeping. B. Listening t the radi. C. Playing cmputer games.
9. Wh did Sam g t the theatre with last night?
A. Jack. B. David. C. Bruce.
10. Where des the man want t g?
A. T the bkshp. B. T the factry. C. T the City Library.
第二节 听下面四段对话。每段对话后各有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第11至13题。
11. When des the cnversatin take place?
A. In the mrning. B. In the afternn. C. In the evening.
12. What is Jim’s hbby?
A. Writing. B. Painting. C. Gardening.
13. What has Jim planted?
A. Trees and flwers.
B. Vegetables and trees.
C. Flwers and vegetables.
听下面一段对话，回答第14至17题。
14. Where did Tina g last weekend?
A. T the beach. B. T the West Hill. C. T the cuntryside.
15. Where did Tina and her friends stay?
A. In a htel. B. In their cars. C. In the tents.
16. When did Tina get hme?
A. At 6:00. B. At 6:30. C. At 9:30.
17. What did Ted d last weekend?
A. Watched a film. B. Read a bk. C. Did sme husewrk.
听下面一段对话，回答第18至21题。
18. Wh went t see Maria’s schl?
A. Betty. B. Eric. C. Tm.
19. Hw many students are there in Maria’s schl?
A. Abut 30. B. Abut 300. C. Abut 500.
20. Hw d English students sit in the classrm?
A. In rws. B. On the grund. C. Arund tables.
21. What d English kids really enjy?
A. Swimming. B. Playing ftball. C. Playing basketball.
听下面一段对话，回答第22至25题。
22. What’s the date tday?
A. September 8th. B. September 9th. C. September 10th.
23. What will the speakers d?
A. Buy sme flwers. B. Make greeting cards. C. Hld a surprise party.
24. Where will the speakers meet this afternn?
A. In the classrm. B. In the playgrund. C. In the meeting rm.
25. Hw lng will it take the speakers t finish the preparatin?
A. Half an hur. B. One and a half hurs. C. Tw and a half hurs.
第三节 听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。该段独白读两遍。
26. Where did the pilt want t fly?
A. T Paris. B. T New Yrk. C. T Lndn.
27. When was the plane cmpleted?
A. In 1919. B. In 1927. C. In 1975.
28. What kind f weather did the pilt experience?
A. Freezing weather and fg.
B. Warm weather and fg.
C. Cld weather and snw.
29. Hw did the pilt feel when he arrived?
A. Very sad. B. Very nervus. C. Very happy.
30. What can we knw abut the pilt?
A. He flew fr mre than tw days.
B. He slept fr a while in his plane.
C. He became a her in America and in France.
二、完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Everyne admires (崇拜) heres. When we are asked wh are ur heres, smene well-knwn like Yang Liwei r Zhng Nanshan may cme int ur mind. They make a big difference t the wrld. Hwever, there are “everyday” heres in ur daily life. They may nt be s famus t the public, ____1____ these cmmn peple are als wrking hard t build a better wrld. Sun Jun is amng them.
Sun Jun cmes frm a pr ____2____. The villagers used t have n enugh fd. He learned t save fd at his ____3____ age. When he was a cllege student, he fund that the prblem f fd waste was mre and mre serius.
After graduating (毕业), Sun Jun jined a vlunteer rganizatin (组织) called Green Fd Bank. The purpse f the rganizatin is t build a ____4____ between peple wh are ready t help thers and thse wh are in need. It ____5____ by cllecting and prviding free fd fr the pr, the disabled and s n.
Sun’s team ____6____ a phne app. It can shw hw much fd restaurants remain (剩余) each day. They ____7____ g there t get the fd fr free. Then it can be given ut in just a few hurs.
S far, Sun and his team have dne ____8____ meaningful t the sciety. On the ne hand, they’ve saved a lt f fd. On the ther hand, they’ve helped sme peple successfully.
____9____ des Sun d all these things? He says, “Thanks t Grandpa Yuan Lngping, we are almst n lnger shrt f fd. We need t think abut hw t stp _____10_____. There’s a lng way t g, but I wn’t give up halfway. It’s just the beginning. We still have much t d.”
1. A. sB. rC. but
2 A. twnB. villageC. city
3. A. earlyB. middleC. ld
4. A. huseB. bridgeC. wall
5. A. changesB. givesC. wrks
6. A. refusedB. develpedC. brke
7. A. usuallyB. neverC. seldm
8. A. nthingB. everythingC. smething
9. A. WhyB. HwC. Where
10. A. cllectingB. wastingC. saving
【答案】1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. B
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了“日常英雄”孙军的事迹。
【1题详解】
句意：他们可能不那么为公众所知，但是这些普通人也在努力建设一个更美好的世界。
s所以；r或者；but但是。根据“They may nt be s famus t the public”和“these cmmn peple are als wrking hard t build a better wrld”可知，前后句之间存在转折关系，此处表示“但是”。故选C。
【2题详解】
句意：孙军来自一个贫穷的村庄。
twn城镇；village村庄；city城市。根据“The villagers used t have n enugh fd.”可知，村民们过去常常没有足够的食物，由此可推测出孙军来自一个贫穷的村庄。故选B。
【3题详解】
句意：他在很小的时候就学会了节约食物。
early早的；middle中间的；ld老的。根据“The villagers used t have n enugh fd.”可知，村民们过去常常没有足够的食物，由此可推测出他在很小的时候就学会了节约食物，at an early age“在很小的时候”。故选A。
【4题详解】
句意：这个组织的目的是在愿意帮助别人的人和有需要的人之间架起一座桥梁。
huse房子；bridge桥梁；wall墙。根据“between peple wh are ready t help thers and thse wh are in need”可知，此处表达的是“在愿意帮助别人的人和有需要的人之间架起一座桥梁”，build a bridge“架起一座桥梁”。故选B。
【5题详解】
句意：它通过为穷人、残疾人等收集和提供免费食物来运作。
changes改变；gives给；wrks运作。根据“by cllecting and prviding free fd fr the pr, the disabled and s n”可知，此处表达的是“它通过为穷人、残疾人等收集和提供免费食物来运作”，wrks“运作”符合句意。故选C。
6题详解】
句意：孙的团队开发了一款手机应用。
refused拒绝；develped开发；brke打破。根据“a phne app”可知，此处表达的是“开发了一款手机应用”，develped“开发”符合句意。故选B。
【7题详解】
详解：句意：他们通常去那里免费获取食物。
usually通常；never从不；seldm很少。根据“Then it can be given ut in just a few hurs.”可知，食物可以在几个小时内分发出去，由此可推测出他们通常去那里免费获取食物，usually“通常”符合句意。故选A。
【8题详解】
句意：到目前为止，孙和他的团队已经为社会做了一些有意义的事情。
nthing没有什么；everything一切；smething一些事情。根据“On the ne hand, they’ve saved a lt f fd. On the ther hand, they’ve helped sme peple successfully.”可知，一方面，他们节省了很多食物，另一方面，他们成功地帮助了一些人，由此可推测出孙和他的团队已经为社会做了一些有意义的事情，smething“一些事情”符合句意。故选C。
【9题详解】
句意：孙为什么要做所有这些事情？
Why为什么；Hw怎样；Where哪里。根据“He says, ‘Thanks t Grandpa Yuan Lngping, we are almst n lnger shrt f fd. We need t think abut hw t stp ...’”可知，下文是解释孙做这些事情的原因，由此可推测出此处是询问孙为什么要做所有这些事情，Why“为什么”符合句意。故选A。
【10题详解】
句意：我们需要考虑如何阻止浪费。
cllecting收集；wasting浪费；saving节约。根据“they fund that the prblem f fd waste was mre and mre serius”以及“On the ne hand, they’ve saved a lt f fd.”可知，他们发现食物浪费问题越来越严重，他们节省了很多食物，由此可推测出此处表达的是“我们需要考虑如何阻止浪费”。故选B。
三、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容判断其后所给句子的对错。
Experts (专家) at the University f Edinburgh studied the relatinship between music and remembering a freign language. They fund that remembering wrds in singing was the best way t remember even ne f the mst difficult languages.
The experts gt the result by ding an experiment. They invited 60 peple and divided them int three grups f 20. Then they asked the three grups f peple t study wrds frm the Hungarian (匈牙利的) language. Why Hungarian, yu ask? The experts said they chse Hungarian because nt many peple knew the language.
All three grups studied the Hungarian language fr 15 minutes. The scientists asked them t learn in three different ways. They asked the first grup t simply speak the wrds. They let the secnd grup speak the wrds t a rhythm (节奏). And they asked the third grup t sing the wrds. Then the three grups f peple jined in a few language tests t see what they remembered. The grup f peple wh learned the Hungarian wrds by singing them did better than the thers. They did the best in fur ut f five f the tests. They als did tw times better than thse wh simply learned the wrds by speaking them.
Dr Katie Overy was ne f the experts wh did the experiment. She thught the findings culd help thse wh try t learn freign languages. “The brain seems t like music, especially fr remembering,” she said.
S, the next time yu study fr a language test, try t sing ut what yu need t remember.
11. Experts fund that singing the wrds was the best way t learn a freign language.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
12. Eighty peple tk part in the experiment.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
13. Each grup learned the wrds in a different way.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
14. The secnd grup f peple did better than the thers.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
15. The writer suggests speaking the wrds when yu study fr a language test.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
【答案】11. A 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. B
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了爱丁堡大学的专家们关于音乐与记忆外语单词之间关系的研究，通过实验发现唱歌是记忆外语单词的最佳方式。
【11题详解】
细节理解题。根据“They fund that remembering wrds in singing was the best way t remember even ne f the mst difficult languages.”可知，专家们发现唱歌是记忆外语单词的最佳方式，该项表述正确。故选A。
【12题详解】
细节理解题。根据“They invited 60 peple and divided them int three grups f 20.”可知，有60人参加了实验，而不是80人，该项表述错误。故选B。
【13题详解】
细节理解题。根据“All three grups studied the Hungarian language fr 15 minutes. The scientists asked them t learn in three different ways.”可知，三个小组以不同的方式学习单词，该项表述正确。故选A。
【14题详解】
细节理解题。根据“The grup f peple wh learned the Hungarian wrds by singing them did better than the thers.”可知，唱歌学习单词的那一组比其他组表现更好，而不是第二组，该项表述错误。故选B。
【15题详解】
细节理解题。根据“S, the next time yu study fr a language test, try t sing ut what yu need t remember.”可知，作者建议下次学习语言测试时，试着唱出你需要记住的内容，而不是说出来，该项表述错误。故选B。
第二节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能回答所提问题 或能完成所给句子的最佳选项。
A
16 Yu can visit Hngkun Museum f Fine Art every day EXCEPT ________.
A. MndayB. WednesdayC. FridayD. Sunday
17. Where is Sifang Art Museum?
A. In Xi’an.B. In Suzhu.C. In Beijing.D. In Nanjing.
18. One can ________ in Tangb Art Museum.
A. learn sculptureB. learn paper-cut
C. shw his wrksD. visit Lin Fengmian’s artwrks
19. When did Six Arts Museum pen?
A. In 2000.B. In 2014.C. In 2018.D. In 2020.
20. Which museum has the lngest pening hurs n Tuesday?
A. Six Arts Museum.B. Sifang Art Museum.
C. Tangb Art Museum.D. Hngkun Museum f Fine Art.
【答案】16. A 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. D
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇应用文。文章介绍了四个艺术博物馆的开放时间、馆藏特色及地址等信息。
【16题详解】
细节理解题。根据“Hngkun Museum f Fine Art”部分中的“Opening Time: 10:00 am—6:00 pm (Mnday clsed)”可知，红坤美术馆周一闭馆，即除了周一，每天都可以参观。故选A。
【17题详解】
细节理解题。根据“Sifang Art Museum”部分中的“Address: N. 9, Zhenqi Rad, Nanjing”可知，四方艺术博物馆位于南京。故选D。
【18题详解】
细节理解题。根据“Tangb Art Museum”部分中的“If they are nt fr yu, yu can jin in ther cultural experiences such as learning paper-cut r traditinal Chinese painting.”可知，在唐波艺术博物馆可以学习剪纸或中国画。故选B。
【19题详解】
细节理解题。根据“Six Arts Museum”部分中的“In 2018, Six Arts Museum in the water twn f Lili pened.”可知，六艺博物馆于2018年开放。故选C。
【20题详解】
细节理解题。根据“Hngkun Museum f Fine Art”部分中的“Opening Time: 10:00 am—6:00 pm (Mnday clsed)”可知，红坤美术馆周二开放8小时；根据“Sifang Art Museum”部分中的“Opening Time: 10:00 am—5:00 pm (Mnday clsed)”可知，四方艺术博物馆周二开放7小时；根据“Tangb Art Museum”部分中的“Opening Time: 9:00 am—4:30 pm”可知，唐波艺术博物馆周二开放7.5小时；根据“Six Arts Museum”部分中的“Opening Time: 9:30 am—4:30 pm”可知，六艺博物馆周二开放7小时。由此可知，红坤美术馆周二开放时间最长。故选D。
B
Lan Huiyun is a gegraphy teacher frm Shuzhu, Shanxi Prvince. After his students finished the gaka f 2024, he and 13 f his students experienced a special jurney. He and his students finally reached Qinghai Lake in Qinghai Prvince after riding abut 2,000 kilmetres in 18 days.
They set ff frm their schl. And befre arriving in Qinghai, they passed thrugh Shanxi, Inner Mnglia, Ningxia and Gansu.
In early May 2024, Lan began t plan this jurney. In rder t make sure f the students’ safety, Lan helped them d sme training in riding. Hwever, they als faced many difficulties n the jurney. “When I nticed the students were tired r felt dwn, I wuld give them sme snacks r tell them a jke t encurage them t mve frward,” he said. “Luckily, all f us persisted (坚持) and finally reached Qinghai Lake.”
In fact, it was nt the first time that Lan had rganized such a jurney fr his students after the gaka. In 2016, he and his 7 students rde frm Shuzhu t Manzhuli. And in 2019, he and his 11 students spent 16 days riding frm Shuzhu t Shanghai.
Thrugh the trips, Lan hpes the students will experience real life and learn hw t deal with difficulties. “I have never thught that a teacher shuld nly teach thrugh bks,” he said, “I’d like t bring mre students t ride in the future.”
21. Hw did Lan Huiyun and his students reach Qinghai Lake?
A. By bus.B. By bike.C. By train.D. By plane.
22. Hw lng did the jurney t Qinghai Lake take?
A. 11 days.B. 13 days.C. 16 days.D. 18 days.
23. What did Lan Huiyun d n the jurney in 2024?
A. He planned the next jurney.
B. He helped the students d sme training.
C. He gave the students sme water t drink.
D. He encuraged the students t mve frward.
24. What’s the crrect rder f the fllwing things?
①Lan and his students gt t Shanghai.
②Lan and his students arrived in Manzhuli.
③Lan and his students reached Qinghai Lake.
④Lan began t plan the jurney t Qinghai Lake
A. ①③②④B. ③④①②C. ②①④③D. ④③①②
25. What’s the best title (题目) fr this passage?
A. A special jurneyB. The advantages f riding
C. Hw t deal with difficultiesD. An experience befre the gaka
【答案】21. B 22. D 23. D 24. C 25. A
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了地理老师兰会云在学生们完成2024年高考后，带领他们骑行约2000公里，历经18天到达青海湖的特殊旅程，以及兰老师之前组织过的类似骑行活动，体现了兰老师希望学生们通过旅行体验真实生活、学会应对困难的愿望。
【21题详解】
细节理解题。根据“He and his students finally reached Qinghai Lake in Qinghai Prvince after riding abut 2,000 kilmetres in 18 days.”可知，兰会云和他的学生们是骑自行车到达青海湖的。故选B。
【22题详解】
细节理解题。根据“He and his students finally reached Qinghai Lake in Qinghai Prvince after riding abut 2,000 kilmetres in 18 days.”可知，到达青海湖的旅程花了18天。故选D。
【23题详解】
细节理解题。根据“When I nticed the students were tired r felt dwn, I wuld give them sme snacks r tell them a jke t encurage them t mve frward”可知，在2024年的旅途中，兰会云会鼓励学生继续前进。故选D。
【24题详解】
细节理解题。根据“In 2016, he and his 7 students rde frm Shuzhu t Manzhuli.”可知，②“兰和他的学生们到达满洲里”排在第一；根据“And in 2019, he and his 11 students spent 16 days riding frm Shuzhu t Shanghai.”可知，①“兰和他的学生们到达上海”排在第二；根据“In early May 2024, Lan began t plan this jurney.”可知，④“兰开始计划去青海湖的旅程”排在第三；根据“He and his students finally reached Qinghai Lake in Qinghai Prvince after riding abut 2,000 kilmetres in 18 days.”可知，③“兰和他的学生们到达青海湖”排在第四。因此正确的顺序是②①④③。故选C。
【25题详解】
最佳标题题。根据全文内容可知，文章主要讲述了兰会云老师带领学生们进行的一次特殊骑行旅程，因此最佳标题是“一次特殊的旅程”。故选A。
C
China is actively wrking t help peple cntrl their weight and live healthier lives. The gvernment started a three-year weight-cntrl plan frm 2024 t 2027 t fight against besity. Obesity can cause serius health prblems like diabetes (糖尿病) and heart disease. Here’s what yu shuld knw abut the new guidelines (指导纲领).
First, it’s imprtant t check yur BMI (身体质量指数). Fr adults (成年人), a healthy BMI is between 18.5 and 24. If yur BMI is between 24 and 28, yu are verweight. 28 r abve means besity.
Bth eating well and exercise are imprtant. Chse healthy fds like brwn rice, fresh vegetables, fish, chicken and beans. Stay away frm fried and sugary treats (甜食), and als eat less salt and il. Surprisingly, lcal favrites like Nrtheast China’s stewed fish (炖鱼) and Nrthwest China’s chili-il ndles (油泼面) are part f the healthy eating list.
Fr exercise, try t d 150—300 minutes f activities like walking r dancing weekly, and d strength training twice a week. Fr example, if yu study fr lng, stand up and exercise fr 3—5 minutes every hur. Shanghai schls nw make sure students exercise fr at least tw hurs daily.
Small daily habits can als make a big difference. Teens (青少年) shuld get eight hurs’ sleep every night because bad sleep can make yu increase weight. Try t eat vegetables first, then meat, and finally rice r bread during a meal t cntrl hw much yu eat. In shrt, small changes like chsing water instead f cla r taking stairs can lead t a healthier yu.
26. If a man’s BMI is ________, it means he is healthy.
A. 22. 5B. 25C. 28D. 33
27. What des the underlined wrd “besity” mean in Chinese?
A. 疾病B. 失眠C. 肥胖D. 孤独
28. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. Eat fried and sugary treats.
B. Take stairs instead f taking lifts.
C. Try t eat rice first, then meat and finally vegetables.
D. Schls all ver China nw make sure students get tw hurs’ exercise a day.
29. What des the passage mainly talk abut?
A. Only develping daily habits.
B. Better eating and less exercise.
C. Paying n attentin t yur BMI.
D. Helping Chinese cntrl weight and live healthier lives.
30. The passage abve can prbably be fund in the part f ________ in a newspaper.
A. CultureB. HealthC. BusinessD. Technlgy
【答案】26. A 27. C 28. B 29. D 30. B
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了中国政府为帮助人们控制体重、过上更健康的生活而采取的措施，包括新的指导纲领中关于BMI、饮食、运动和日常习惯等方面的建议。
【26题详解】
细节理解题。根据“Fr adults (成年人), a healthy BMI is between 18.5 and 24.”可知，对于成年人来说，健康的BMI指数在18.5到24之间，因此如果一个男人的BMI是22.5，意味着他是健康的。故选A。
【27题详解】
词句猜测题。根据“Fr adults (成年人), a healthy BMI is between 18. 5 and 24. If yur BMI is between 24 and 28, yu are verweight. 28 r abve means besity.”可知，对于成年人来说，健康的BMI指数在18.5到24之间，如果你的BMI指数在24到28之间，你就是超重，28或以上就是肥胖，因此besity意为“肥胖”。故选C。
【28题详解】
细节理解题。根据“In shrt, small changes like chsing water instead f cla r taking stairs can lead t a healthier yu.”可知，选择走楼梯而不是乘电梯是正确的健康建议。故选B。
【29题详解】
主旨大意题。根据“China is actively wrking t help peple cntrl their weight and live healthier lives.”以及全文内容可知，文章主要介绍了中国政府为帮助人们控制体重、过上更健康的生活而采取的措施。故选D。
【30题详解】
推理判断题。根据“China is actively wrking t help peple cntrl their weight and live healthier lives.”以及全文内容可知，文章主要介绍了中国政府为帮助人们控制体重、过上更健康的生活而采取的措施，因此文章可能出现在报纸的健康版块。故选B。
非选择题（三大题，共计40分）
四、语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处按要求填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。每空1个单词。
The Yi New Year is a ppular festival fr the Yi ethnic grup (彝族) in Sichuan, Yunnan, Guizhu and Guangxi. It ____31____ (fall) n a day arund Nvember 20 every year. There are many traditinal practices (习俗) f the festival.
When the festival draws near, the Yi peple will start huse cleaning. They think that cleaning can help them get rid f bad things in the huse and bring gd ____32____ (luck) t them. They als put firewd (木柴) in frnt f ____33____ (they) huses. They believe that the height f the firewd shws the hard wrk they have ____34____ (d) in the past year and is als a symbl f a happy life in the new year.
On the eve f the Yi New Year, family members cme tgether t have a big dinner.
On ____35____ (冠词) day f the festival, the yung Yi peple wear their ethnic dresses and g t a muntainside. They jin in traditinal activities f the lcal New Year. Merqiu (磨尔秋), a seesaw-like (像跷跷板一样的) swing activity, is ne f the mst ppular ____36____ (game) amng the Yi peple.
New Year’s activities wuld nt be cmplete (完整的) ____37____ (介词) visiting relatives r friends. The Yi peple usually get gifts ready a few days earlier ____38____ (连词) they g fr a visit.
The Yi peple lve these practices ____39____ (deep) and have been trying t pass them dwn. These practices shw the Yi peple’s way f life and their gd wishes fr a _____40_____ (gd) life than befre.
【答案】31. falls
32. luck 33. their
34. dne 35. the
36. games 37. withut
38. befre 39. deeply
40. better
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了彝族的新年及其相关习俗。
【31题详解】
句意：它通常在每年11月20日左右。根据“every year”可知，本句描述的是每年发生的事情，需用一般现在时；主语“It”是第三人称单数，动词用第三人称单数形式，fall的第三人称单数形式为falls。故填falls。
【32题详解】
句意：他们认为打扫可以帮助他们摆脱房子里的坏东西，给他们带来好运。根据“gd”可知，此处用名词表示“好运”，luck“运气”，不可数名词，gd luck“好运”。故填luck。
【33题详解】
句意：他们还在房子前面放木柴。根据“huses”可知，此处用形容词性物主代词修饰，表示“他们的房子”，they“他们”，人称代词主格，此处应用形容词性物主代词their“他们的”，修饰名词huses。故填their。
【34题详解】
句意：他们相信木柴的高度表明了他们在过去一年中所做的努力，也是新的一年幸福生活的象征。根据“have”可知，此处表示“已经做的努力”，需用现在完成时，其结构为“have/has+动词的过去分词”，d的过去分词为dne。故填dne。
【35题详解】
句意：在节日当天，年轻的彝族人穿上他们的民族服装，去山坡上。根据“day f the festival”可知，此处特指节日的那一天，应用定冠词the。故填the。
【36题详解】
句意：磨尔秋，一种像跷跷板一样的秋千活动，是彝族人中最受欢迎的游戏之一。根据“ne f the mst ppular ...”可知，此处表示“最受欢迎的游戏之一”，ne f the+形容词最高级+名词复数，表示“最……之一”，game的复数为games。故填games。
【37题详解】
句意：新年活动如果没有拜访亲戚或朋友就不完整。根据“New Year’s activities wuld nt be cmplete ... visiting relatives r friends.”可知，此处表示“没有拜访亲戚或朋友就不完整”，withut“没有”，介词，符合语境。故填withut。
【38题详解】
句意：彝族人通常在去拜访的几天前就准备好礼物。根据“The Yi peple usually get gifts ready a few days earlier ... they g fr a visit.”可知，此处表示“在去拜访的几天前就准备好礼物”，befre“在……之前”，连词，引导时间状语从句，符合语境。故填befre。
【39题详解】
句意：彝族人深深地喜爱这些习俗，并一直在努力传承它们。根据“lve these practices”可知，此处表示“深深地喜爱”，deep“深的”，形容词，此处应用其副词形式deeply“深深地”，修饰动词lve。故填deeply。
40题详解】
句意：这些习俗展示了彝族人的生活方式以及他们对比以前更好生活的美好愿望。根据“than befre”可知，此处表示“比以前更好”，gd“好的”，形容词，此处应用其比较级better“更好的”，修饰名词life。故填better。
五、阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据其内容完成后面各项任务。
Many students ask fr advice abut hw t imprve their English. Here are three basic questins.
The first questin is abut understanding English films and sngs. Li Ha frm Hubei wrte, “I like watching English films and listening t English sngs, but I dn’t understand very much. What can I d?”
Watching films and listening t sngs are great ways t learn English! Watch and listen several times, and guess the meaning f the new wrds. Each time yu will learn smething new. I als advise yu t talk abut the films r sngs with yur friends in English.
The secnd questin is abut speaking. Wang Fan frm Jilin wrte, “ur schl has a teacher frm the US. I am shy and I am afraid t speak t her. What shuld I d?”
Yu can say, “Hell, hw are yu?” “D yu like China?” These are gd ways t start a cnversatin. And befre yu begin,yu shuld smile at her! Remember this: D nt be shy. Just try.
The third questin is abut vcabulary. Zhang Lei frm Anhui wrte, “I write dwn new wrds, but I frget them quickly. Hw can I remember them?”
D nt wrry. 忘记新单词是很正常的! I suggest yu write fur r five wrds a day n pieces f paper and place them in yur rm. Read the wrds when yu see them, and try t use them.
41. 从文中找出与下面所给句子意思相近的句子。
Lts f students want t knw hw t make prgress in their English.
______________________________________________
42. 将文中画线的英语句子译成汉语。
______________________________________________
43. 回答问题：
Accrding t the passage, what shuld yu d befre starting a cnversatin with a stranger?
______________________________________________
44. 回答问题：
What des the underlined wrd “them” refer t (指代)?
______________________________________________
45. 将文中画线的汉语句子译成英语。
______________________________________________
【答案】41. Many students ask fr advice abut hw t imprve their English.
42. 看电影和听歌曲是学习英语的好方法。
43. Yu shuld smile at her.
44. New wrds.
45. It’s very nrmal t frget new wrds!
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章针对许多学生提出的如何提高英语的问题，给出了三个基本问题的解答，分别涉及理解英语电影和歌曲、开口说英语以及记忆新单词等方面。
【41题详解】
“Lts f students want t knw hw t make prgress in their English.”的意思是“许多学生想知道如何提高他们的英语水平”，与短文中“Many students ask fr advice abut hw t imprve their English.”意思相近，该句意思是“许多学生寻求关于如何提高他们英语的建议”。故填Many students ask fr advice abut hw t imprve their English.
【42题详解】
Watching films and listening t sngs意思是“看电影和听歌曲”；are意思是“是”；great ways t learn English意思是“学习英语的好方法”。故填：看电影和听歌曲是学习英语的好方法。
【43题详解】
根据“And befre yu begin, yu shuld smile at her!”可知，在和陌生人开始交谈之前，你应该对她微笑。故填Yu shuld smile at her.
【44题详解】
根据“Zhang Lei frm Anhui wrte, ‘I write dwn new wrds, but I frget them quickly. Hw can I remember them?’”可知，张磊写下了新单词，但很快就忘了，他问如何能记住它们，由此可知“them”指代的是“new wrds”。故填New wrds.
【45题详解】
frget new wrds“忘记新单词”；is very nrmal“是很正常的”，句子陈述客观事实，时态用一般现在时，it作形式主语，动词不定式作真正主语，所以be动词用is。故填It’s very nrmal t frget new wrds!
六、书面表达（满分20分）
46. 2016年我国颁布实施了《全国环境宣传教育工作纲要》，提出在全国逐步开展创建“绿色学校”活动。请你根据下面的提示，用英语写一篇短文，谈谈创建“绿色学校”可采取什么措施以及你对创建“绿色学校”的看法。
提示：
1. 每个班都收集可回收利用的废品，然后用卖废品的钱去帮助贫困地区的学生。
2. 学生学会家庭节约能源的方法，并使用它们以减少浪费。
3. 你对创建“绿色学校”的看法。
注意：
1. 短文词数：80左右。
2. 短文必须包含以上内容，但可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
3. 文中不得出现真实的人名和地名。
4. 短文的开头部分已给出，不计入总词数。
In rder t create a green schl, __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】
例文：
In rder t create a green schl, we can take the fllwing measures. First, each class can cllect recyclable waste and use the mney frm selling it t help students in pr areas. Secnd, we shuld learn and use energy-saving methds at hme t reduce waste. I think creating a green schl is very meaningful. It nt nly prtects ur envirnment but als teaches us t be respnsible and caring. Let's wrk tgether t make ur schl greener and better.
【解析】
【详解】[总体分析]
①题材：材料作文；
②时态：一般现在时；
③提示：根据所给三点提示，先说明创建“绿色学校”的两项具体措施，再阐述个人看法，并适当补充细节使内容连贯。
[写作步骤]
第一步：用总起句引出措施；
第二步：用First、Secnd分别介绍两项措施；
第三步：用I think引出个人看法，并说明意义，最后发出倡议。
[亮点词汇]
①recyclable可回收的
②energy-saving节能的
③meaningful有意义的
[高分句型]
①I think creating a green schl is very meaningful.（运用了动名词短语作主语）
②It nt nly prtects ur envirnment but als teaches us t be respnsible and caring.（运用了nt nly ... but als ...并列结构）
Hngkun Museum f Fine Art
Opening Time: 10:00 am—6:00 pm (Mnday clsed)
Hngkun Museum f Fine Art is a centre f the exhibitin, cllectin (收藏品) and research f art. Since its pening in 2014, it has cllected hundreds f artwrks, including wrks f famus artists such as Lin Fengmian, Xu Beihng and Wu Guanzhng.
Address: N. 42, West Dawang Rad, Beijing
Sifang Art Museum
Opening Time: 10:00 am—5:00 pm (Mnday clsed)
Sifang Art Museum is ne f the mst beautiful art museums in China. It lies in muntains and it als has a lake area. Its great envirnment helps many architects (建筑师) and artists develp and shw their wrks there.
Address: N. 9, Zhenqi Rad, Nanjing
Tangb Art Museum
Opening Time: 9:00 am—4:30 pm
Built in 2000, Tangb Art Museum has a cllectin f Shaanxi flk art (陕西民间艺术) and histrical (历史题材的) paintings. If they are nt fr yu, yu can jin in ther cultural experiences such as learning paper-cut r traditinal Chinese painting.
Address: N. 26, Gngyuan Suth Rad, Xi’an
Six Arts Museum
Opening Time: 9:30 am—4:30 pm
In 2018, Six Arts Museum in the water twn f Lili pened. The amazing flk art museum helps save traditinal Chinese artwrks and shws sculptural and architectural (雕塑的和建筑学的) artwrks frm all ver China.
Address: N. 1, Renmin East Rad, Suzhu