2025~2026学年济南市天桥区七年级英语第一学期期末考试试题以及答案

这是一份2025~2026学年济南市天桥区七年级英语第一学期期末考试试题以及答案，共8页。试卷主要包含了 B等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用 0.5mm 黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 个小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A. My birthday is in August. B. Teng Fei lves sprts. C. I can run fast.
2.A. Ella desn’t like math. B. He isn’t frm the US. C. Peter can’t swim.
3.A. Are yu Yaming? B. Is there a music hall? C. Can yu play the pian?
4.A. Let’s g t class. B. Please sit dwn. C. Have fun, bys.
5.A. When is yur birthday? B. Whse erhu is this? C. Where is the library?
第二节（共 5 个小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. When des Bb usually get t schl?
A. At 7:30. B. At 8:00. C. At 8:30.
7. What des Jhn’s father like ding?
A. Riding. B. Swimming. C. Fishing.
8. Where is Ms Ga’s ffice?
A. In teachers’ building. B. On sprts field. C. Behind student center.
9. What is Binbin’s favurite subject?
A. Bilgy. B. English. C. Gegraphy.
10. Hw much des the by spend n the birthday cake?
A. 105 yuan. B. 85 yuan. C. 60 yuan.
第三节（共 5 个小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. What time des Lucy get up tday?
A. At 6:00. B. At 6:30. C. At 7:00.
12. Hw des Lucy g t schl?
A. By car. B. By bus. C. By bike.
13. What des Lucy d n the bus?
A. Study English. B. Eat breakfast. C. Listen t music.
14. Hw lng des Lucy exercise?
A. Fr tw hurs. B. Fr ne hur. C. Fr half an hur.
15. Hw is Lucy’s day nw?
A. Nice. B. Hard. C. Bring.
第四节（共 5 个小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. Where is Le frm?
A. China. B. Canada. C. France.
17. What des Le’s father lk like?
A. Tall with brwn glasses. B. Tall with black hair. C. Shrt with blue hat.
18. What des Le’s mther like ding?
A. Reading. B. Gardening. C. Drawing.
19. Hw ld is Le’s sister?
A. Eight. B. Nine. C. Ten.
20. What d yu think f Le’s family?
A. Small and funny. B. Big and helpful. C. Small but warm.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解（共 20 个小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Welcme t Kids’ Club
Hell, kids! Want fun activities fr free time? Cme t Kids’ Club!
21.Hw many clubs are there in the text?
A. One. B. Tw. C. Three. D. Fur.
22.When is the art club?
A. On Mndays. B. On Tuesdays. C. On Fridays. D. On Saturdays.
23.Where d yu g t fill in the swimming club frm?
A. Rbtics lab. B. The PE ffice. C. The music hall. D. Rm 101.
24.Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the text?
A. Anyne can jin the Rbtics Club.
B. Yu can jin the swimming club next week.
C. Kids can’t jin the art club if they can’t draw well.
D. Yu can write an e-mail t jin the Rbtics Club.
25.Where is the text prbably frm?
A. An email. B. An ad. C. A stry. D. A letter.
B
It’s my first English class in junir high. Our English teacher Ms Chen writes the sentence (句子) n the blackbard and says, “Please write this dwn.” We start t write. I write dwn the first wrd and stp. “That’s nt right. But is it OK t tell the mistake? Is that nice, in the first lessn?” Questins jump int my mind.
“Why aren’t yu writing, Wang Han?” I lk up at Ms Chen. My eyes meet hers. My muth feels dry. But then I think abut the meaning f the sentence. I put up my hand. “Ms Chen, there’s a mistake,” I say. “That sentence is frm Cnfucius, nt frm Mencius.”
“Well dne, Wang Han. In fact, this is my first lessn fr all f yu. Yu are nw in junir high schl. Learning will be mre difficult. Yu need t think mre in yur learning. Please always remember this.” That’s really an imprtant lessn!
26.Wh is the English teacher?
A. Cnfucius. B. Mencius. C. Ms Chen. D. Wang Han.
27.What d the students d first in the class?
A. Play a game. B. Read a strybk.
C. Draw a picture. D. Write dwn a sentence.
28.Why des Wang Han stp writing?
A. He finds a mistake. B. He wants t take a break.
C. He thinks the class is bring. D. He needs help with his writing.
29.What des Ms Chen want the students t learn?
A. T write carefully. B. T listen t teachers.
C. T think mre in learning. D. T remember mre sentences.
30.Hw may Wang Han feel at the end f the class?
A. Bred. B. Busy. C. Hard. D. Meaningful.
C
Kids’ birthday parties are mre fun than adults’ (成人) parties. If parents want t have parties fr their kids, they can fllw these three steps.
1. Make a list.
Each kid wants different kinds f parties. Write dwn all yur child’s ideas n a piece f paper and prepare the things.
2. Chse a right time.
Make sure yu wn’t have the party at the same time as yur child’s sccer game. Or many f yur kid’s friends may jin in the sccer game.
3. Buy smething.
If yu g t a party stre, it will have everything yu need, and yu wn’t have t g t different stres t get everything ready.
Yu need t decide whether (是否) t buy a cake r make ne. Yu shuld als decide what kind f fd t have. Make sure t get the fd ready n time.
31.What shuld parents d first fr kids’ birthday parties?
A. Make a list. B. Buy many things.
C. Invite his friends. D. Make a birthday cake.
32.Why d parents need t chse a right time fr the party?
A. T save mre mney. B. T let mst friends cme.
C. T make a cake in free time. D. T buy things in a big stre.
33.What is the best place t buy things fr the party?
A. A restaurant. B. A schl shp. C. A supermarket. D. A party stre.
34.What des the underlined wrd “decide” in the last paragraph mean?
A. Help. B. Wrk. C. Start. D. Chse.
35.What is the text mainly abut?
A. Chse a right time fr the party. B. Parents shuld have parties fr kids.
C. Hw t prepare a kid’s birthday party. D. The best fd fr a kid’s birthday party.
D
A study shws that abut half f all peple say that they are shy. Sme peple are nt shy when they are with their friends. They laugh, talk and play games tgether happily. But when they are in a new place r meet smene they dn’t knw, they becme afraid (害怕的). They may nt knw what t say r hw t start a cnversatin. Fr ther peple, shyness can be a prblem. They becme s wrried that they cannt speak in frnt f peple.
But why are sme peple shy? Scientists nce did a study n tw-mnth-ld babies. They fund that f every five babies, ne was very active (积极的). This kind f baby liked t make sunds and mve arund a lt. And ne f every five babies was always quiet. These babies might be shy when they grew up.
Family life can affect (影响) shyness. Studies shw that shy children ften have parents wh dn’t have many friends and dn’t d many family activities. These families dn’t ften g n picnics r visit parks tgether.
Peple wh are active are smetimes mre successful (成功的). But smetimes shyness can be a gd thing. Shy peple are ften very gd at listening. They are gd friends because they listen mre than they talk. This can als make them successful in their wrk r studies later n.
36.When may sme peple becme afraid?
A. When they are at hme. B. When they play games.
C. When they are with friends. D. When they are in a new place.
37.What d the scientists find in the study in paragraph 2?
A. All babies are very active. B. Quiet babies might be shy later.
C. Active babies dislike sunds. D. Half f the babies wuld be shy.
38.Which f the fllwing affects a child’s shyness accrding t the text?
A. The child’s schl. B. The child’s family.
C. The child’s friends. D. The child’s hbby.
39.What des the underlined wrd “This” in paragraph 4 refer t?
A. Talk mre and listen less. B. Talk mre and listen mre.
C. Listen mre and talk less. D. Listen less and talk less.
40.What can be a suitable title fr the text?
A. The prblems f shy peple. B. The abilities shy peple have.
C. Shyness makes peple active. D. Shyness: reasns and its tw sides.
第二节 阅读七选五（共 5 个小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Family means a lt t us. Hw can we get n well with ur family members? 41
First, spend mre time with yur family members. On weekdays, yu can invite yur family members t g fr a walk. 42 Sharing small times makes lve grw in the big family.
43 They really want t knw abut yu. Share interesting things at schl r yur small wrries with them. Let them knw when yu need help.
Third, d yur best fr the family. D smething fr yur family, like washing the dishes after meals, r helping clean the rm. 44
Last, learn t care abut family. Caring isn’t a big thing—it’s a small thing yu d every day. Fr example, if yur mum has a cld, give her a cup f water. 45 Yur care makes everyne in yur family feel imprtant and clse.
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 35 分）
第一节 补全对话（共 5 个小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
阅读下面对话，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Ken: Hi! My name is Ken. Nice t meet yu.
Tm: Hi, Ken! I’m Tm. 46
Ken: I am new here tday. What class d we have tday?
Tm: We have math, Chinese and PE in the mrning.
Ken: Oh, I like Chinese best. It’s fun. 47
Tm: My favurite is math because I am gd with numbers.
Ken: That sunds great! 48
Tm: Dn’t wrry. If yu need help, I can teach yu.
Ken: 49 Thank yu s much.
Tm: Yu are welcme.
Ken: Oh, ne mre thing. 50
Tm: Miss Baker! She is very kind. She always makes the class interesting.
Ken: Great. Oh, that’s the bell. Let’s g t the class.
46.A. I am 12 years ld. B. Sit dwn, please.
C. Nice t meet yu t. D. Gd mrning.
47.A. Where d yu cme frm? B. What’s yur favurite subject?
C. When d yu have a math class? D. Hw d yu spell yur name?
48.A. But I think math is difficult. B. S yu are busy tday.
C. Because I can’t find my pen. D. And I think it’s interesting.
49.A. It’s my schlbag. B. There is a map n the wall.
C. I am in Class Tw. D. That’s very kind f yu!
50.A. Why d yu get up early? B. Wh is ur math teacher?
C. Hw d yu g t schl? D. Where is the sprts field?
第二节 完形填空（共 15 个小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从文后每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
This weekend, Max cmes t see Grandma. He lves her, 51 he desn’t like t stay at her hme—the ld huse has n cmputer r tys. The nly thing he 52 is reading Grandma’s stries abut animals. Writing is Grandma’s 53 . She started it when she was yung. S she’s 54 gd at it!
After dinner Max starts 55 the table, but Grandma stps him. She mixes (混合) the scraps (残羹剩饭) with 56 fd. Then she puts them in the big yard full f trees.
“ 57 d yu d that?” Max asks.
“ 58 my friends!” Grandma smiles, “Yu’ll see them tmrrw.”
The next mrning, Max fllws Grandma t the 59 . Ww! What are thse? S many birds are there.
“They lk s 60 !” Max asks, “Yur friends?”
“Yeah! They like having 61 under the trees. Smetimes, I make fruit salad fr them. And frm them, I 62 many nice ideas fr my stries.” Grandma says happily.
“Sunds fun!” Max says, 63 the birds.
Later that mrning, Max 64 a stry, t.
“Gd jb, Max!” Grandma smiles after reading it. “It’s nt the same as mine, but it’s 65 !”
51.A. s B. and C. but D. because
52.A. needs B. enjys C. hpes D. begins
53.A. wish B. exercise C. prblem D. hbby
54.A. really B. exactly C. carefully D. happily
55.A. breaking B. cleaning C. playing D. pening
56.A. ther B. every C. each D. anther
57.A. What B. Why C. When D. Where
58.A. At B. In C. Fr D. On
59.A. schl B. park C. lake D. yard
60.A. special B. quiet C. cute D. busy
61.A. breakfast B. lunch C. dinner D. ndles
62.A. help B. take C. get D. send
63.A. talking t B. playing with C. wrking ut D. lking at
64.A. cks B. writes C. sends D. visits
65.A. great B. ld C. bring D. famus
第三节 阅读填空（共 10 个小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
D yu knw schl gardening? It’s (66)_______ interesting subject.
Fr many students, they wuld like (67) (learn) utside the classrm. They learn t plant vegetables with (68) (they) hands. Als they discver (69)_______ different kinds f plants grw. Their favurite vegetables are carrts and (70) (tmat). Fr sme teachers, they think the class is (71) (use). It helps the students learn abut nature. The mst imprtant thing is that students knw fd isn’t easy t get. S peple shuld never waste (浪费) it.
This year, ur class gt a small garden land (72)_______ the schl yard. We (73) (usual) wrk in the garden n Wednesday afternn. Our class teacher, Ms Zha (74) (teach) us t wrk tgether. We als learn that taking care f plants needs time (75)_______ lve. The schl garden is nt just a small land. It’s a place where we learn, play, and grw.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节 情境运用（共 5 个小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.A: ________________________?
B: Yes, I can. I learn it n the Internet.
77.A: Excuse me, where is the dining hall?
B: ________________________.
78.A: What club des Peter want t jin?
B: ________________________.
79.A: ________________________?
B: Because it’s interesting t learn the past.
80.A: Hw d yu usually celebrate yur birthday, Han Lin?
B: ________________________.
第二节 作文（满分 25 分）
我们在课堂上求知，在操场上奔跑，校园的每一寸土地上都留下了我们成长的印记。近日，学校的英语公众号正在举办以 “My schl life” 为主题征文活动。假如你是七年级三班的李华，请你用英语写一篇短文投稿。
内容包括：1.描述你的学校或教室的环境特点；
2.介绍你的学校日常（如作息安排、所学科目、最喜欢的老师等）；
3.谈一谈你校园生活中的感想和收获。
注意：（1）词数 100 左右。
（2）可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
（3）不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。






2025—2026 学年第一学期七年级期末测试英语试题 参考答案
第一部分 听力（共 30 分，每小题 1.5 分）
1-5：CCCBA 6-10：ACACA 11-15：CBBCA 16-20：BABCC
第二部分 阅读（共 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解（40 分，每小题 2 分）
21-25：CABDB 26-30：CDACD 31-35：ABD DC 36-40：DBBCD
第二节 阅读七选五（10 分，每小题 2 分）
41-45：ADBCF
第三部分 语言运用（共 35 分）
第一节 补全对话（5 分，每小题 1 分）
46-50：CBADB
第二节 完形填空（15 分，每小题 1 分）
51-55：CBDAB 56-60：ABCDC 61-65：ACDBA
第三节 阅读填空（15 分，每小题 1.5 分）
66.an 67.t learn 68.their 69.hw 70.tmates 71.useful
72.in 73.usually 74,teaches 75.and
第四部分 写作（共 35 分）
第一节 情境运用（10 分，每小题 2 分）
（注：结合图片内容作答，以下为通用合理答案）
76. Can yu play the guitar/pian/erhu?
77. It’s next t the library/behind the teaching building/n the left f the playgrund.
78. He wants t jin the sprts/swimming/art club.
79. Why d yu like histry?
80. I usually have a big dinner with my family/have a birthday party with my friends.
第二节 作文（25 分）
参考范文
My schl life
I’m Li Hua frm Class 3, Grade 7. My schl is beautiful with many green trees and clrful flwers. There is a big playgrund and a bright classrm with clean desks and chairs.
We have classes frm 8 a.m. t 4 p.m. every day. We learn Chinese, math, English and ther subjects. My favrite subject is English, and my favrite teacher is Ms Wang. She is kind and makes her classes interesting. After class, I ften play basketball with my classmates n the playgrund.
My schl life is busy but happy. I learn a lt f knwledge and make many gd friends here. I lve my schl and I will wrk harder t make mre prgress.
A. Here are sme gd ways.
B. Secnd, talk with yur family.
C. That will make yur family feel happy!
D. At weekends, yu can visit yur uncle r aunt.
E. It’s wnderful t have a party with yur friends.
F. Or tell yur dad t take an umbrella when it rains.
G. Yu shuld finish yur hmewrk n time every day.