2024年中考英语（四川成都）第二次模拟考试（含答案）

这是一份2024年中考英语（四川成都）第二次模拟考试（含答案），共55页。
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答第Ⅰ卷时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。
3．回答第Ⅱ卷时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第Ⅰ卷(100分)
听力部分 (共30小题,计30分)
一、听句子选答语。根据你听到的内容，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答语。每段对话读两遍。(共5题，每小题1分，计5分)
1．A．Of curse.B．Gd luck.C．Yu’re welcme.
2．A．Sunds great.B．Cngratulatins!C．I hpe s.
3．A．Never mind.B．It’s my business.C．Srry, I’ll keep it in mind.
4．A．With pleasure.B．It’s my pleasure.C．Yes, I culd.
5．A．Yes, please.B．N, I culdn’t.C．Sure, here yu are.
二、听力匹配。听下面5段对话。把与其内容相符图画的字母填在1~5小题相应的位置上。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(共5题，每小题1分，计5分)
6．A． B． C． D． E.

三、听短对话选答案。听下面几段对话，根据对话内容及问题从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。每段对话读两遍。(共10题，每小题1分，计10分)
7．A．Abut 12 Kilmeters. B．By bus.C．Abut 30 minutes.
8．A．6:40 p.m. B．7:00 p.m.C．7:20 p.m.
9．A．Her friend. B．Her mther.C．Her father.
10．A．Visit Beijing. B．Wrk in the hspital.C．Stay in the cuntryside.
11．A．A park. B．A museum.C．A library.
12. A. Because he’s great.
B．Because he’s nt new in the city.
C．Because he has a gd sense f directin.
13．A．The shw.B．The hst.C．The university.
14．A．Because he catches a cld.
B．Because he didn’t wear the thick clthes.
C．Because the weather becmes cld.
15．A．Alice.B．Alice’s father.C．Alice’s mther.
16．A．Chpsticks.B．Silver.C．A ty panda.
四、听短文选答案。听短文，根据短文内容选择正确答案。短文念两遍。(共5题，每小题1分，计5分)
17．Where will they meet after visiting Dujiangyan Irrigatin System?
A．At the suth gate.B．At the east gate.C．At the west gate.
18．What time will they leave Panda Valley?
A．2:00 p. m.B．3:30 p. m.C．3:00 p. m.
19．Which is the right rder f the activities?
① ging shpping ② seeing pandas ③ enjying the perfrmance
A．②①③.B．①②③.C．③②①.
20．Where can yu hear the speakers wrds?
A．Online.B．A radi.C．A tur grup.
21．What is the speaker’s purpse?
A．T wish the turists a gd trip.
B．T tell abut the travel plan.
C．T intrduce sme places f interest.
五、听力填空。你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。(共5题，每小题1分，计5分)
第二部分 基础知识运用 (共30小题，计40分)
六、选择填空。(共15小题，计20分)
A.单项选择题，从以下各题的ABC三个选项中选择正确答案。(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)
27．—I smetimes argue with my brther.
—Oh, it’s _________ usual thing, nt _________ big deal.
A．an; aB．a; aC．an; the
28．Mr. Wang is such a gd teacher! N ne is ______ than him.
A．gdB．betterC．the best
29．—Excuse me, culd yu tell me ________?
—Yu can take N. 6 bus there. It’s abut 15 minutes’ ride.
A．hw far the Slender West Lake is
B．hw lng des it take t get t the Slender West Lake
C．hw I can get t the Slender West Lake
30．—There is a new art magazine in ur classrm. It ______ belng t Mary.
—Yes, she is the nly ne in the art club.
A．can’tB．mustC．may
31．—Bys and girls, put ________ first and be careful while crssing the street!
—Thank yu, Mrs. Li.
A．mneyB．safetyC．interest
32．Students are nt suppsed t enter the teacher's ffice_______________.
A．unless they are allwed t
B．if they want t ask questins
C．when they are asked t cme in
33．—I really need sme advice n imprving my prnunciatin.
—One way is by ________.
A．reading wrd grupsB．keeping a diaryC．listening t tapes
34．—Are yu ging t watch the cming shw in Wanda Plaza?
—Sure. I will g there this Saturday unless the shw ________.
A．cancelsB．is cancelledC．will cancel
35．My mther always tells me bks and friends shuld be few ________ gd.
A．butB．rC．and
36．The Hng Kng-Zhuhai-Maca Bridge ________ is the wrld’s lngest crss-sea bridge has been pen t traffic fr five years.
A．whichB．whC．what
B.补全对话。根据对话内容，从下边方框中选出适当的选项补全对话。(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
W: Where were yu yesterday? I called yu three times!
M: Oh? 37 But why did yu call me?
W: Yu always say that yu like music.
M: That’s right.
W: 38 But at last I had t g there by myself.
M: I’m srry. But where?
W: Just in the Century Cncert Hall.
M: What a pity! Hw was it?
W: 39
M: I suppsed all the pieces were wrld-famus nes.
W: Of curse.
M: 40
W: Yes. I think that was the climax (高潮).
M: What were they?
W: 41 All f them were adapted (改编) frm sme famus mvies.
M: I really shuldn’t g ut yesterday!
A．Were there any sngs at the cncert?
B．I was ut fr a picnic with a few f my ld friends.
C．It was the mst wnderful ne I have ever attended.
D．Sme were Chinese sngs and sme were freign sngs.
E．S I tried my best t get tw tickets fr yesterday’s cncert.
七、完形填空。根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。(共15小题，计20分。A篇共5小题，每小题2分，计10分;B篇共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)
A
There was a man wh was ging thrugh hard times. His wife divrced (离婚) him. He lst all his mney after nly a year in business. He tried hard, but 42 was all that he had seen. He left 43 behind and went int the frest. There, he met an ld man wh had lived there fr a lng time. He shared his stry with the ld man. “Can yu give me ne gd reasn nt t 44 ?” he asked the ld man.
“Lk,” the ld man said, pinting 45 a plant. “D yu see that bamb there?” Althugh I tk care f the bamb seed (种子) fr fur years, there was n sign f grwth. But I did nt give up. In the 46 year, a small sprut came ut f the earth. S it tk the bamb several years just t grw strng rts.
42．A．victryB．failureC．wrry
43．A．everythingB．smethingC．nthing
44．A．run afterB．take ffC．give up
45．A．utB．tC．with
46．A．fifthB．furthC．sixth
B
Life will be peaceful if yu always d kind things. I teach my daughters t develp a habit f
47 thers. The little acts f kindness give yu chances t prvide service fr thers. They can make yu feel hw 48 it is t be kind and helpful.
We live in a rural area (乡村). Mst f what we 49 is beautiful nature. One f the exceptins t the beauty is the rubbish that sme peple thrw ut f their car windws as they drive alng the rural rads. One f the few disadvantages f living there is shrt f 50 public services, such as rubbish cllectin, which is cmmn in the city.
A helping behavir that I practice regularly with my daughters is 51 rubbish in ur neighbrhd. My daughters ften have a match t see wh can cllect the mst rubbish. They will ften say t me in a(n) 52 vice, “There’s sme rubbish, Daddy—stp the car!” And if we have time, we will ften get ut f ur car and pick it up. 53 it may seem strange, we d it. In fact, we enjy it. We pick up rubbish in parks, n sidewalks, almst anywhere.
One day I saw a stranger picking up rubbish n the rad. I stpped. He 54 his head and smiled, “I saw yu ding this with yur family. It’s a gd idea t prtect ur envirnment.”
There are many ther ways t 55 kindness fr thers. Yu may share a dinner with a beggar, visit lnely ld peple in the nursing hme, r help the blind crss the street. Yu can think f smething that can be finished 56 but helpful. It is fun, self-satisfying, and what’s mre, it can set a gd example. Helping thers is helping yurself.
47．A．watchingB．helpingC．welcming
48．A．greatB．unusualC．easy
49．A．dreamB．needC．see
50．A．cmfrtableB．excellentC．necessary
51．A．picking upB．lking frC．taking away
52．A．surprisedB．tiredC．excited
53．A．AlthughB．ButC．Since
54．A．cveredB．raisedC．shk
55．A．describeB．buyC．prvide
56．A．suddenlyB．easilyC．hardly
阅读理解(共15小题，计30分)
阅读判断。阅读下面短文，根据短文内容判断句子正误。正确地涂“A”，错误地涂“B”。(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
根据短文内容判断句子的正误。正确的涂“A”，错误的涂“B”。
57．Mre peple take an interest in city walking in 2023 than thse in 2022.
58．Chengdu is the tenth favrite city fr city walking arund the cuntry.
59．Accrding t the underlined sentence, the survey result can be like this.
60．Half f the peple wh lve city walking are at the age between 19—28.
61．The survey results shw us five clear reasns fr peple t have city walks.
阅读单选。阅读下面两篇短文，根据短文内容选择正确答案。(共10小题，每小题2分，计20分)
A
62．Which f the blanks can be filled with the underlined wrd “grundbreaking” in passage a?
A．The speech was s ________ that many peple fell asleep.
B．She has lived a ________ life since she lst her parents in an accident.
C．The cmpany’s ________ prducts have changed the lives f the deaf.
63．What are passengers allwed t d in a quiet carriage?
A．B．C．
64．What is the best title fr ________?
A．“AI” Making a Big Difference t the Future
B．“AI” Named Mst Ppular Wrd f 2023
C．“AI” Develping at a Fast Speed
65．Which f the fllwing questins ISN’T answered in the passages?
A．Why did Katalin Karik and Drew Weissman win the Nbel Prize?
B．Hw can the Bei Du Navigatin Satellite System help with bird recrd?
C．What influences can the new technlgy — “AI” bring us?
66．What’s the theme shared by all the passages?
A．Unexpected scientific discveries.
B．Scial develpment and prgress.
C．Internatinal prblems and effrts.
B
Is there a cnnectin between music and language? Accrding t recent studies, the answer is yes. Here, let’s lk at the fllwing tw.
Music and Hearing
A recent study by researcher Nina Kraus shws that playing a musical instrument can make a persn’s hearing ability becme better. In the study, tw grups f peple listened t a persn talking in a nisy rm. The peple in the first grup were musicians, while thse in the secnd grup weren’t. The musicians were able t hear the talking persn mre clearly.
Think abut vilinists in a shw. When they play with the grup, they hear their wn instrument and many thers, t. But the vilinists must listen clsely t what they are playing, and leave ut the ther sunds. In this way, musicians are able t fcus n certain sunds, even in a rm with lts f nise.
Music and Speaking
Gttfried Schlaug, a dctr at Harvard Medical Schl, wrks with strke (中风) patients. Because f their illness, these peple cannt say their names, addresses, r ther infrmatin nrmally. Hwever, they can still sing. Dr. Schlaug was surprised t find that singing wrds helped his patients t finally speak. Why des this wrk? Schlaug isn’t sure. Music seems t help patients t use the brain again.
Frm the results, we can knw that music is a gd influence n cncentratin, the ability t fcus n ne thing. It wrks n listening and speaking skills as well. Playing an instrument r singing can help us d better in schl as well. S music is nt nly enjyable, it’s als gd fr us in many ther ways.
67．Which tw grups f peple tk part in Nina Kraus’ study?
A．Nisy peple and quiet peple.
B．Musicians and nn-musicians.
C．Vilinists and ther musicians.
68．Why are the vilinists mentined (提及) in paragraph 3?
A．T describe what they did in a shw.
B．T shw hw imprtant they are in the study.
C．T better explain why musicians hear mre clearly.
69．Hw des Gttfried Schlaug help strke patients speak?
A．By playing music fr them.
B．By asking them t sing wrds.
C．By getting them t play an instrument.
70．What’s the passage mainly abut?
A．Music makes peple listen carefully and hear well.
B．Music can be well used in medical research.
C．Music helps with peple’s language abilities.
71．In which magazine might we read this passage?
A．B．C．
第II卷(50分)
单词拼写。在对话空格中填上适当的单词，使对话完整正确。一空一词（含缩写词）。(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
72．Cnfucius (孔子) was a p in the field f educatin and has been called a teacher by all the learners.
73．G , the students began t understand what Mr. Li had said.
74．In mst cultures, peple put their fingers up t their muths t ask fr (silent).
75．The dctr spent 30 minutes e his bdy but fund nthing wrng.
76．The prfessr deeply r that he culd help the endangered animal but he did nthing.
二、补全对话。在空格中填上适当的单词, 使对话完整正确。一空一词 (含缩写词)。(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)。
A: Yu lk dwn. What’s up?
B: Oh, I gt terrible grades in the past few tests. 77 I’ve tried my best, I still made n prgress.
A: Dn’t be s upset. As lng as yu find ut yur prblems and keep 78 yur learning methds, yu’ll gradually learn much better.
B: Yeah, I knw. But math is really difficult fr me. I have great truble fllwing my teacher in class. And it always takes me a lng time t wrk ut math prblems.
A: Dn’t wrry. Here are sme ways that are 79 believed t be helpful. Mst students and teachers think taking an 80 part in class is the mst useful. Dn’t just listen. Yu need t think. Secnd, crrect mistakes in time and review them every day. Last, practice makes perfect. D mre exercises. In this way, yur speed f ding math exercises will be 81 .
B: Thanks a lt.
A: I knw it’s difficult t develp such habits, but it’s 82 trying. Because they may bring yu unexpected results.
B: OK, I’ll give it a try. Hw I wish I culd be as talented as yu!
A: I have my prblems, t. My parents have high 83 fr my future. They want me t get int a tp high schl and a gd university. I’m afraid t 84 them if I fail. Smetimes I feel s wrried that everything can catch my 85 but study.
B: Oh, maybe yu can share yur feelings with them, and dn’t think t much abut the results, fcus mre n the prcess 86 . Make sure yu achieve yur daily gals. Then the final results can’t be bad.
A: Yes, yu’re right.
三、选词填空。从下面方框中选出10个单词，将其正确形式填入短文，使短文意思正确通顺 (每词限用一次)。(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)。

Weekends, air cnditiners (空调), take uts…are all cmmn things fr mdern peple. Have yu ever 87 if ancient peple enjyed the same lifestyles? Let’s take a lk.
N weekends: In ancient China, there were n weekends because peple did nt use a 88 calendar. But they culd still relax after wrk. During the Han Dynasty, 89 tk ne day ff every five days. There were als many public hlidays in ancient times, such as Spring Festival and Mid-Autumn Festival. Peple like farmers and businessmen usually wrked 90 f the year, but they wuld take a few days ff during Spring Festival.
Smart ways f staying cl: In ancient times, thugh peple didn’t have air cnditiners, they had their wn ways t get thrugh the ht summer. Peple 91 ice blcks in winter and stred them in an ice huse. When summer came, peple culd take the ice blcks hme and use them t make 92 rms cler.
There was a kind f pillw made f prcelain (瓷器) that felt 93 cl. Ancient peple als made bamb int bed mats t sleep n. They’re still used tday.
Takeuts nt a new thing: There was takeut as 94 back as the Sng Dynasty. In the famus Sng Dynasty painting Alng the River During the Qingming Festival (清明上河图), a takeut wrker can 95 with fd in hand.
Peple at the time even had special meal bxes fr takeut dishes. They als used warming plates r pts made f tw layers (层) f prcelain. Ht water culd be put between them 96 dishes warm.
四、阅读表达。(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)
A.六选五。根据短文内容，从短文后的A～F选项中选出5个适当的选项补全短文，选项中有一个为多余选项。(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)。
Hw d we knw abut things that happened thusands f years ag when there were n vides r phts? 97 The earliest written recrds f Chinese culture are knwn as racle bne inscriptins.
Mre than 3,000 years ag, peple in the Shang Dynasty liked t ask frtune tellers (占卜师) abut the future. Fr example, where shuld I g t make mney r will my wife give birth t a by r a girl? 98 The frtune teller wuld write the questin n an racle bne, heat it up, and then read the cracks (裂纹) in it t find an answer.
Tens f thusands f racle bnes have been fund s far. 99 They culd als tell us the rigins (起源) f Chinese thughts and where ur culture cmes frm.
What’s mre, the racle bnes are key t understanding the grwth and develpment f the written frm f the Chinese language. 100 They shw us hw ur ancestrs created Chinese writing characters.
S far, we have fund abut 4,500 characters but we can nly understand fewer than 1,500 f them. 101
In 2017, UNESCO added racle bne inscriptins t its Memry f the Wrld Register (世界记忆名录). They are indeed a valuable memry f ancient China.
A．Oracle bne inscriptins aren’t useful at all nw.
B．One pssible answer may be the written recrds.
C．There are still many unknwn meanings waiting fr us t find ut.
D．Frm wrk t lve, peple asked questins abut lts f different tpics.
E．Many f the characters we use tday are similar t thse used 3,000 years ag.
F．These bnes culd tell us a lt abut hw peple lived during the Shang Dynasty.
B.任务型阅读。根据短文内容, 完成图表中所缺信息。(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)。
The human brain is an interesting and pwerful rgan, but why it des what it des is a prcess that we’re still studying. Bth the cnscius (意识) and subcnscius mind have a valuable influence n ur behavir, but mst f us nly knw a little abut hw they wrk. What fllws are smething interesting knwn t have happened r existed (存在) abut human psychlgy (心理):
1. We ften think that we’re ging t react t a future event in a certain way, nly fr the event t actually take place and us t find that we reacted (反应) cmpletely differently t hw we predicted. We place hpe in the ability f a single happening t be able t change everything, but we ften find that it desn’t d much t change hw we feel at all.
2. There is a lt f research data (数据) that suggests that fllwing a pattern fr 66 days will make it habitual. If, fr example, yu want t be better abut cleaning yur hme r ging t the gym—make a cnscius effrt t d it fr 66 days, after which it will becme a habit and will be easier t persevere (this als wrks fr breaking habits).

3. If yu’re trying t d smething creative, like writing a shrt stry r designing a dress, yu’d be better ff ding it after a lng and stressful day. This is because researchers have fund that peple can actually shw mre creativity when their brains aren’t functining as efficiently (有效的). This is ne f the main reasns why peple ften get great ideas while taking a shwer after a hard day’s wrk.
4. Knwn as “placeb sleep”, believing that yu have slept enugh will actually make yu feel mre refreshed and ready t take n the day’s challenges, even if yu actually slept t few r t many hurs. On the ther hand, always talking abut hw tired yu are will actually make yu feel tired and can be harmful t yur perfrmance.
102．
103．
104．
105．
106．
五、书面表达。（计15分）
107．假如你们学校正在举办一场名为“我的梦想”的主题活动，请你根据以下信息，用英语写一篇短文描述自己的梦想。
1. 努力学习，能够考上自己最喜欢的大学；
2. 当一名电脑工程师，建立自己的公司；
3. 建立一个慈善组织或者做志愿者，尽力去帮助那些需要帮助的人；
4. 阅读大量的书籍，获得丰富的知识，环游世界；
5. 退休后，同家人在一个美丽而安静的地方生活。
要求：100词左右，文章开头已经给出，不计入总词数。
My Dream
China Dream has becme the cmmn dream f all the Chinese peple. ___________________
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2024年中考第二次模拟考试（四川成都卷）
英语
（考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答第Ⅰ卷时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。
3．回答第Ⅱ卷时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第Ⅰ卷(100分)
听力部分 (共30小题,计30分)
一、听句子选答语。根据你听到的内容，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答语。每段对话读两遍。(共5题，每小题1分，计5分)
1．A．Of curse.B．Gd luck.C．Yu’re welcme.
2．A．Sunds great.B．Cngratulatins!C．I hpe s.
3．A．Never mind.B．It’s my business.C．Srry, I’ll keep it in mind.
4．A．With pleasure.B．It’s my pleasure.C．Yes, I culd.
5．A．Yes, please.B．N, I culdn’t.C．Sure, here yu are.
1．C 【原文】略
2．A 【原文】略
3．C 【原文】略
4．A 【原文】略
5．C 【原文】略
二、听力匹配。听下面5段对话。把与其内容相符图画的字母填在1~5小题相应的位置上。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(共5题，每小题1分，计5分)
6．A． B． C． D． E.

6． E A C B D
【原文】略
三、听短对话选答案。听下面几段对话，根据对话内容及问题从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。每段对话读两遍。(共10题，每小题1分，计10分)
7．A．Abut 12 Kilmeters. B．By bus.C．Abut 30 minutes.
8．A．6:40 p.m. B．7:00 p.m.C．7:20 p.m.
9．A．Her friend. B．Her mther.C．Her father.
10．A．Visit Beijing. B．Wrk in the hspital.C．Stay in the cuntryside.
11．A．A park. B．A museum.C．A library.
12. A．Because he’s great.
Because he’s nt new in the city.
C．Because he has a gd sense f directin.
13．A．The shw.B．The hst.C．The university.
14．A．Because he catches a cld.
B．Because he didn’t wear the thick clthes.
C．Because the weather becmes cld.
15．A．Alice.B．Alice’s father.C．Alice’s mther.
16．A．Chpsticks.B．Silver.C．A ty panda.
7．C【原文】略
8．A【原文】略
9．B【原文】略
10. A【原文】略
11. B【原文】略
12. C【原文】略
13.A【原文】略
14.B【原文】略
15.B【原文】略
16.C【原文】略
四、听短文选答案。听短文，根据短文内容选择正确答案。短文念两遍。(共5题，每小题1分，计5分)
17．Where will they meet after visiting Dujiangyan Irrigatin System?
A．At the suth gate.B．At the east gate.C．At the west gate.
18．What time will they leave Panda Valley?
A．2:00 p. m.B．3:30 p. m.C．3:00 p. m.
19．Which is the right rder f the activities?
① ging shpping ② seeing pandas ③ enjying the perfrmance
A．②①③.B．①②③.C．③②①.
20．Where can yu hear the speakers wrds?
A．Online.B．A radi.C．A tur grup.
21．What is the speaker’s purpse?
A．T wish the turists a gd trip.
B．T tell abut the travel plan.
C．T intrduce sme places f interest.
17．A 18．B 19．B 20．C 21．B
【原文】略
五、听力填空。你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。(共5题，每小题1分，计5分)
22．friends 23．unhappy 24．talking 25．paper 26．public
【原文】略
第二部分 基础知识运用 (共30小题，计40分)
六、选择填空。(共15小题，计20分)
A.单项选择题，从以下各题的ABC三个选项中选择正确答案。(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)
27．—I smetimes argue with my brther.
—Oh, it’s _________ usual thing, nt _________ big deal.
A．an; aB．a; aC．an; the
28．Mr. Wang is such a gd teacher! N ne is ______ than him.
A．gdB．betterC．the best
29．—Excuse me, culd yu tell me ________?
—Yu can take N. 6 bus there. It’s abut 15 minutes’ ride.
A．hw far the Slender West Lake is
B．hw lng des it take t get t the Slender West Lake
C．hw I can get t the Slender West Lake
30．—There is a new art magazine in ur classrm. It ______ belng t Mary.
—Yes, she is the nly ne in the art club.
A．can’tB．mustC．may
31．—Bys and girls, put ________ first and be careful while crssing the street!
—Thank yu, Mrs. Li.
A．mneyB．safetyC．interest
32．Students are nt suppsed t enter the teacher's ffice_______________.
A．unless they are allwed t
B．if they want t ask questins
C．when they are asked t cme in
33．—I really need sme advice n imprving my prnunciatin.
—One way is by ________.
A．reading wrd grups B．keeping a diaryC．listening t tapes
34．—Are yu ging t watch the cming shw in Wanda Plaza?
—Sure. I will g there this Saturday unless the shw ________.
A．cancelsB．is cancelledC．will cancel
35．My mther always tells me bks and friends shuld be few ________ gd.
A．butB．rC．and
36．The Hng Kng-Zhuhai-Maca Bridge ________ is the wrld’s lngest crss-sea bridge has been pen t traffic fr five years.
A．whichB．whC．what
27．B
【详解】句意：——我有时和我哥哥吵架。——哦，这是平常的事，不是什么大事。
考查冠词。分析句子可知，两空都表示泛指，usual以辅音音素开头，用不定冠词a；big以辅音音素开头，用不定冠词a。故选B。
28．B
【详解】句意：王老师真是个好老师！没有人比他更好。
考查比较级的用法。gd好的，原级；better更好的，比较级；the best最好的，最高级。N是否定词，“否定词+比较级”等同于最高级的用法，表示“没有比……更……的了”，故选B。
29．C
【详解】句意：——打扰一下，你能告诉我怎么去瘦西湖吗？——你可以在那里乘6路公共汽车。大约15分钟的车程。
考查宾语从句。句子是宾语从句，用陈述语序，排除B；根据答语“Yu can take N. 6 bus there. It’s abut 15 minutes’ ride.”可知，上句询问应如何去某地，用hw引导宾语从句。故选C。
30．B
【详解】句意：——我们教室里有一本新的美术杂志。它一定是玛丽的。——是的，她是唯一一个在美术俱乐部里的人。
考查情态动词。can’t不可能；must一定；may也许。根据“she is the nly ne in the art club.”可知，此处是指这本美术杂志一定是玛丽的，用must表肯定推测。故选B。
31．B
【详解】句意：——男孩女孩们，过马路时把安全放在第一位，要小心！——谢谢你，李女士。
考查名词辨析。mney金钱；safety安全；interest兴趣。根据“ careful while crssing the street!”可知，过马路时，需注意安全，安全第一。故选B。
32．A
【详解】句意：学生们不应该进入老师办公室，除非他们被允许进入。
考查条件状语从句。A选项意为“除非他们被允许”；B选项意为“如果他们想问问题”；C选项意为“当他们被邀请来时”。根据“Students are nt suppsed t enter the teacher's ffice”可知学生们不应该进老师办公室，可推测除非被允许。B和C选项是能够进入教室的情况，前面应该表示“可以进入”，不符合句意。故选A。
33．C
【详解】句意：——我真的需要一些关于提高发音的建议。——一种方式通过听磁带。
考查动词短语。reading wrd grups读单词组；keeping a diary写日记；listening t tapes听磁带。由“imprving my prnunciatin”可知，可以通过听磁带提高发音。故选C。
34．B
【详解】句意：——你会去看即将在万达广场举行的演出吗？——当然。除非演出取消，否则这个星期六我将去那里。
考查被动语态。根据“I will g there this Saturday unless the shw...”可知，本句为unless引导的条件状语从句，主句为一般将来时，从句可用一般现在时表将来，主语the shw是动作cancel“取消”的承受者，应用一般现在时的被动语态。故选B。
35．A
【详解】句意：我母亲总是告诉我书和朋友应该少而精。
考查并列连词辨析。but但是，转折关系；r或者，选择关系；and和，并列关系。由“few…gd”可知，此处应是转折关系，少而好。故选A。
36．A
【详解】句意：港珠澳大桥是世界上最长的跨海大桥，已通车五年。
考查定语从句。句子是定语从句，先行词是The Hng Kng-Zhuhai-Maca Bridge，关系词在从句中作主语，用which引导定语从句。故选A。
B.补全对话。根据对话内容，从下边方框中选出适当的选项补全对话。(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
W: Where were yu yesterday? I called yu three times!
M: Oh? 37 But why did yu call me?
W: Yu always say that yu like music.
M: That’s right.
W: 38 But at last I had t g there by myself.
M: I’m srry. But where?
W: Just in the Century Cncert Hall.
M: What a pity! Hw was it?
W: 39
M: I suppsed all the pieces were wrld-famus nes.
W: Of curse.
M: 40
W: Yes. I think that was the climax (高潮).
M: What were they?
W: 41 All f them were adapted (改编) frm sme famus mvies.
M: I really shuldn’t g ut yesterday!
A．Were there any sngs at the cncert?
B．I was ut fr a picnic with a few f my ld friends.
C．It was the mst wnderful ne I have ever attended.
D．Sme were Chinese sngs and sme were freign sngs.
E．S I tried my best t get tw tickets fr yesterday’s cncert.
37．B 38．E 39．C 40．A 41．D
【导语】本文主要介绍W本来打电话邀请M去参加音乐会，但是M没有接到电话，W自己去了音乐会，两人谈论了音乐会的情况。
37．根据“Where were yu yesterday? I called yu three times!”可知此处回答自己去了哪里，选项B“我和几个老朋友出去野餐了”符合语境。故选B。
38．根据“But at last I had t g there by myself.”可知此处表示自己邀请对方一起去看音乐会，但是最后只有自己去了，选项E“所以我尽力买了两张昨天音乐会的票”符合语境。故选E。
39．根据“Hw was it?”可知此处对音乐会进行评价，选项C“这是我参加过的最精彩的一次”符合语境。故选C。
40．根据“Yes. I think that was the climax”可知此处是一般疑问句，选项A“音乐会上有歌曲吗”符合语境。故选A。
41．根据“All f them were adapted (改编) frm sme famus mvies.”可知此处介绍音乐，选项D“有些是中国歌曲，有些是外国歌曲”符合语境。故选D。
七、完形填空。根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。(共15小题，计20分。A篇共5小题，每小题2分，计10分;B篇共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)
A
There was a man wh was ging thrugh hard times. His wife divrced (离婚) him. He lst all his mney after nly a year in business. He tried hard, but 42 was all that he had seen. He left 43 behind and went int the frest. There, he met an ld man wh had lived there fr a lng time. He shared his stry with the ld man. “Can yu give me ne gd reasn nt t 44 ?” he asked the ld man.
“Lk,” the ld man said, pinting 45 a plant. “D yu see that bamb there?” Althugh I tk care f the bamb seed (种子) fr fur years, there was n sign f grwth. But I did nt give up. In the 46 year, a small sprut came ut f the earth. S it tk the bamb several years just t grw strng rts.
42．A．victryB．failureC．wrry
43．A．everythingB．smethingC．nthing
44．A．run afterB．take ffC．give up
45．A．utB．tC．with
46．A．fifthB．furthC．sixth
42．B 43．A 44．C 45．B 46．A
【导语】本文主要介绍了一个男人生意失败，他在森林里遇到了一位老人，老人通过竹子的故事告诉他不应该放弃，应继续努力并坚持下去。
42．句意：他尽力了，但他所看到的都是失败。
victry胜利；failure失败；wrry担心。根据“He tried hard, all that he had seen”可知转折词后表示虽然尽力了，但是还是失败了。故选B。
43．句意：他丢下一切，走进了森林。
everything每件事；smething某物；nthing没有什么。根据“behind and went int the frest”可知是丢下一切，走进森林。故选A。
44．句意：你能给我一个不放弃的好理由吗？
run after追赶；take ff起飞；give up投降。根据“He lst all his mney after nly a year in business.”可知是有没有理由让他不放弃。故选C。
45．句意：“看，”老人指着一株植物说。
ut向外；t向；with具有。pint t“指着”，是固定短语。故选B。
46．句意：第五年，地上长了一个小芽。
fifth第五；furth第四；sixth第六。根据“Althugh I tk care f the bamb seed (种子) fr fur years, there was n sign f grwth. But I did nt give up”可知前四年都没有成长，但是在第五年长出了小芽。故选A。
B
Life will be peaceful if yu always d kind things. I teach my daughters t develp a habit f
47 thers. The little acts f kindness give yu chances t prvide service fr thers. They can make yu feel hw 48 it is t be kind and helpful.
We live in a rural area (乡村). Mst f what we 49 is beautiful nature. One f the exceptins t the beauty is the rubbish that sme peple thrw ut f their car windws as they drive alng the rural rads. One f the few disadvantages f living there is shrt f 50 public services, such as rubbish cllectin, which is cmmn in the city.
A helping behavir that I practice regularly with my daughters is 51 rubbish in ur neighbrhd. My daughters ften have a match t see wh can cllect the mst rubbish. They will ften say t me in a(n) 52 vice, “There’s sme rubbish, Daddy—stp the car!” And if we have time, we will ften get ut f ur car and pick it up. 53 it may seem strange, we d it. In fact, we enjy it. We pick up rubbish in parks, n sidewalks, almst anywhere.
One day I saw a stranger picking up rubbish n the rad. I stpped. He 54 his head and smiled, “I saw yu ding this with yur family. It’s a gd idea t prtect ur envirnment.”
There are many ther ways t 55 kindness fr thers. Yu may share a dinner with a beggar, visit lnely ld peple in the nursing hme, r help the blind crss the street. Yu can think f smething that can be finished 56 but helpful. It is fun, self-satisfying, and what’s mre, it can set a gd example. Helping thers is helping yurself.
47．A．watchingB．helpingC．welcming
48．A．greatB．unusualC．easy
49．A．dreamB．needC．see
50．A．cmfrtableB．excellentC．necessary
51．A．picking upB．lking frC．taking away
52．A．surprisedB．tiredC．excited
53．A．AlthughB．ButC．Since
54．A．cveredB．raisedC．shk
55．A．describeB．buyC．prvide
56．A．suddenlyB．easilyC．hardly
47．B 48．A 49．C 50．C 51．A 52．C 53．A 54．B 55．C 56．B
【导语】本文主要讲述了作者教育女儿要乐于助人的故事。
47．句意：我教女儿养成帮助别人的习惯。
watching观察；helping帮助；welcming欢迎。根据下文“The little acts f kindness give yu chances t prvide service fr thers.”可知，向别人提供服务就是帮助别人，helping符合语境，故选B。
48．句意：它们可以让你感觉到善良和乐于助人是多么的棒。
great很好的；unusual不寻常的；easy容易的。根据语境可知，此处表示善良和乐于助人会让人感觉很好，great符合语境，故选A。
49．句意：我们看到的大部分都是美丽的自然。
dream梦；need需要；see看见。根据空后的beautiful nature“美丽的自然”可知，空格处意为“看见”，see符合语境，故选C。
50．句意：住在那里的少数缺点之一就是缺少必要的公共服务。
cmfrtable舒服的；excellent优秀的；necessary必要的。根据下文“such as rubbish cllectin, which is cmmn in the city”可知，此处指农村缺少必要的公共服务，necessary符合语境，故选C。
51．句意：我定期锻炼女儿的一个助人习惯就是在我们附近捡垃圾。
picking up捡起来；lking fr寻找；taking away带走。根据下文“wh can cllect the mst rubbish”可知，此处指让女儿在小区捡垃圾，picking up符合语境，故选A。
52．句意：她们经常兴奋地对我说。
surprised吃惊的；tired疲惫的；excited兴奋的。根据上文“My daughters ften have a match t see wh can cllect the mst rubbish.”可知，作者的女儿们比赛谁捡的垃圾多，所以看到垃圾会很兴奋，excited符合语境，故选C。
53．句意：虽然这似乎很奇怪，但是我们做了。
Althugh虽然；But但是；Since既然，根据“ may seem strange, we d it.”可知，前后句是让步关系，空格处意为“虽然”，Althugh符合语境，故选A。
54．句意：他抬起头微笑着。
cvered覆盖；raised抬起；shk摇动。根据上文“One day I saw a stranger picking up rubbish n the rad.”可知，作者遇见那个陌生人时他在捡垃圾，而捡垃圾是低着头，所以他和作者说话时，应该要抬起头，raised符合语境，故选B。
55．句意：为别人做善事有很多方式。
describe描述；buy买；prvide提供。prvide sth. fr sb.意为“为某人提供某物”，prvide符合语境，故选C。
56．句意：你可以想一些容易完成又有帮助的事情。
suddenly突然地；easily容易地；hardly几乎不。根据上文“Yu may share a dinner with a beggar, visit lnely ld peple in the nursing hme, r help the blind crss the street.”可知，这里列举的事情都是些很容易完成的事，easily符合语境，故选B。
阅读理解(共15小题，计30分)
阅读判断。阅读下面短文，根据短文内容判断句子正误。正确地涂“A”，错误地涂“B”。(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
根据短文内容判断句子的正误。正确的涂“A”，错误的涂“B”。
57．Mre peple take an interest in city walking in 2023 than thse in 2022.
58．Chengdu is the tenth favrite city fr city walking arund the cuntry.
59．Accrding t the underlined sentence, the survey result can be like this.
60．Half f the peple wh lve city walking are at the age between 19—28.
61．The survey results shw us five clear reasns fr peple t have city walks.
57．A 58．B 59．A 60．A 61．B
【导语】本文主要是关于城市步行的调查。
57．细节理解题。根据“And in the first half f 2023, searches abut city walks n Xiahngshu grew by ver 30 times cmpared with the number in the same perid in 2022.”可知，与2022年相比，2023年将有更多的人对城市步行感兴趣。故选A。
58．细节理解题。根据“Chengdu is als n the list f tp 10 cities fr city walking.”可知，成都也在城市步行的十大城市之列，并没有说成都排在第十，故选B。
59．推理判断题。根据“82% f the city walkers are females while males make up fr 18%.”可知，82%的城市步行者是女性，而男性占18%，所以饼状图是正确的。故选A。
60．细节理解题。根据柱状图可知，19—23岁占比22%，24—28岁占比28%，两者一共占比50%，所以可以说喜欢在城市散步的人中有一半年龄在19—28岁之间。故选A。
61．细节理解题。根据“●T slw dwn t learn a city better. ●T have a cheaper and mre relaxing way t travel. ●T have a clse cnnect in with the cmmunity arund us. ●T reduce stress. ●Others”可知，文章给出了四个明确原因，不是五个，故选B。
阅读单选。阅读下面两篇短文，根据短文内容选择正确答案。(共10小题，每小题2分，计20分)
A
62．Which f the blanks can be filled with the underlined wrd “grundbreaking” in passage a?
A．The speech was s ________ that many peple fell asleep.
B．She has lived a ________ life since she lst her parents in an accident.
C．The cmpany’s ________ prducts have changed the lives f the deaf.
63．What are passengers allwed t d in a quiet carriage?
A．B．C．
64．What is the best title fr ________?
A．“AI” Making a Big Difference t the Future
B．“AI” Named Mst Ppular Wrd f 2023
C．“AI” Develping at a Fast Speed
65．Which f the fllwing questins ISN’T answered in the passages?
A．Why did Katalin Karik and Drew Weissman win the Nbel Prize?
B．Hw can the Bei Du Navigatin Satellite System help with bird recrd?
C．What influences can the new technlgy — “AI” bring us?
66．What’s the theme shared by all the passages?
A．Unexpected scientific discveries.
B．Scial develpment and prgress.
C．Internatinal prblems and effrts.
62．C 63．A 64．B 65．C 66．B
【导语】本文主要介绍了社会的发展和进步。
62．词义猜测题。根据“Katalin Karik and Drew Weissman wn the prize fr their grundbreaking findings n mRNA.”可知她们因其在信使核糖核酸方面的突破性发现而获奖，故grundbreaking意为“突破性的”，可放选项C“该公司开创性的产品改变了聋人的生活。”中。故选C。
63．推理判断题。根据“In a quiet carriage, passengers aren’t allwed t put their phnes, ntebk cmputers r iPads n carriage riders als need t make sure that their children are well-behaved t avid trubling thers.”可知在安静的车厢里，乘客不允许把手机、笔记本电脑或iPad放在扬声器上，还需要确保他们的孩子表现良好，排除BC。故选A。
64．最佳标题题。根据“And it has been named the mst ppular wrd f 2023 by the dictinary publisher Cllins.”可知本段主要介绍AI成为2023年度热词。故选B。
65．细节理解题。根据“Katalin Karik and Drew Weissman wn the prize fr their grundbreaking findings n mRNA.”可知Katalin Karik和Drew Weissman因其在信使核糖核酸方面的突破性发现而获奖；根据“They tie a small psitining equipment t a bird. It can better recrd where the birds g and rest, and infrmatin abut hw they fly, such as their flight speed.”可知他们把一个小型定位设备绑在一只鸟上。它可以更好地记录鸟类去哪里和休息，以及它们如何飞行的信息。故选C。
66．主旨大意题。通读全文可知，这四篇文章介绍了社会的发展和进步。故选B。
B
Is there a cnnectin between music and language? Accrding t recent studies, the answer is yes. Here, let’s lk at the fllwing tw.
Music and Hearing
A recent study by researcher Nina Kraus shws that playing a musical instrument can make a persn’s hearing ability becme better. In the study, tw grups f peple listened t a persn talking in a nisy rm. The peple in the first grup were musicians, while thse in the secnd grup weren’t. The musicians were able t hear the talking persn mre clearly.
Think abut vilinists in a shw. When they play with the grup, they hear their wn instrument and many thers, t. But the vilinists must listen clsely t what they are playing, and leave ut the ther sunds. In this way, musicians are able t fcus n certain sunds, even in a rm with lts f nise.
Music and Speaking
Gttfried Schlaug, a dctr at Harvard Medical Schl, wrks with strke (中风) patients. Because f their illness, these peple cannt say their names, addresses, r ther infrmatin nrmally. Hwever, they can still sing. Dr. Schlaug was surprised t find that singing wrds helped his patients t finally speak. Why des this wrk? Schlaug isn’t sure. Music seems t help patients t use the brain again.
Frm the results, we can knw that music is a gd influence n cncentratin, the ability t fcus n ne thing. It wrks n listening and speaking skills as well. Playing an instrument r singing can help us d better in schl as well. S music is nt nly enjyable, it’s als gd fr us in many ther ways.
67．Which tw grups f peple tk part in Nina Kraus’ study?
A．Nisy peple and quiet peple.
B．Musicians and nn-musicians.
C．Vilinists and ther musicians.
68．Why are the vilinists mentined (提及) in paragraph 3?
A．T describe what they did in a shw.
B．T shw hw imprtant they are in the study.
C．T better explain why musicians hear mre clearly.
69．Hw des Gttfried Schlaug help strke patients speak?
A．By playing music fr them.
B．By asking them t sing wrds.
C．By getting them t play an instrument.
70．What’s the passage mainly abut?
A．Music makes peple listen carefully and hear well.
B．Music can be well used in medical research.
C．Music helps with peple’s language abilities.
71．In which magazine might we read this passage?
A．B．C．
67．B 68．C 69．B 70．C 71．B
【导语】本文主要介绍了音乐和语言之间的关系。
67．细节理解题。根据“The peple in the first grup were musicians, while thse in the secnd grup weren’t.”可知两组人分别是音乐家和非音乐家。故选B。
68．细节理解题。根据“The musicians were able t hear the talking persn mre clearly...”以及“Think abut vilinists in a shw. When they play with the grup, they hear their wn instrument and many thers, t. But the vilinists must listen clsely t what they are playing, and leave ut the ther sunds.”可知作者举小提琴家的例子是为了进一步解释音乐家们能够更清楚地听到说话的人说话。故选C。
69．细节理解题。根据“Hwever, they can still sing. Dr. Schlaug was surprised t find that singing wrds helped his patients t finally speak”可知是让医生把话唱出来。故选B。
70．主旨大意题。本文主要介绍了音乐和语言之间的关系。故选C。
71．推理判断题。本文主要介绍了音乐和语言之间的关系，故文章可能来自杂志《大脑，它是如何工作的》。故选B。
第II卷(50分)
单词拼写。在对话空格中填上适当的单词，使对话完整正确。一空一词（含缩写词）。(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
72．Cnfucius (孔子) was a p in the field f educatin and has been called a teacher by all the learners.
73．G , the students began t understand what Mr. Li had said.
74．In mst cultures, peple put their fingers up t their muths t ask fr (silent).
75．The dctr spent 30 minutes e his bdy but fund nthing wrng.
76．The prfessr deeply r that he culd help the endangered animal but he did nthing.
72．(p)ineer
【详解】句意：孔子是教育领域的先驱，被所有的学习者称为老师。根据“Cnfucius (孔子) was a…in the field f educatin and has been called a teacher by all the learners.”可知是指孔子是教育领域的先驱，pineer“先驱”，空前有a修饰，用单数。故填(p)ineer。
73．(G)radually
【详解】句意：渐渐地，学生们开始明白李老师所说的话了。结合“the students began t understand what Mr. Li had said”和首字母“G”可知，此处是指学生逐渐地明白了老师说的话；gradually“逐渐地”，副词，在句中作状语，修饰整个句子，位于句首，首字母要大写。故填(G)radually。
74．silence
【详解】句意：在大多数文化中，人们把手指放在嘴上要求安静。根据“ask fr…”可知，此处应该填名词，silent的名词为silence“安静”。故填silence。
75．(e)xamining
【详解】句意：医生花费30分钟检查了他的身体，但没有发现任何问题。根据“his bdy but fund nthing wrng”结合首字母可知意思是“检查”，用examine，根据短语spend time (in) ding sth.可知此处填动名词examining。故填(e)xamining。
76．(r)egretted
【详解】句意：教授深感后悔，他可以帮助濒临灭绝的动物，但他什么也没做。根据“The prfessr deeply he culd help the endangered animal but he did nthing.”可知，教授深感后悔没有帮助濒临灭绝的动物，regret“后悔”，时态是一般过去时，动词用过去式，故填(r)egretted。
二、补全对话。在空格中填上适当的单词, 使对话完整正确。一空一词 (含缩写词)。(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)。
A: Yu lk dwn. What’s up?
B: Oh, I gt terrible grades in the past few tests. 77 I’ve tried my best, I still made n prgress.
A: Dn’t be s upset. As lng as yu find ut yur prblems and keep 78 yur learning methds, yu’ll gradually learn much better.
B: Yeah, I knw. But math is really difficult fr me. I have great truble fllwing my teacher in class. And it always takes me a lng time t wrk ut math prblems.
A: Dn’t wrry. Here are sme ways that are 79 believed t be helpful. Mst students and teachers think taking an 80 part in class is the mst useful. Dn’t just listen. Yu need t think. Secnd, crrect mistakes in time and review them every day. Last, practice makes perfect. D mre exercises. In this way, yur speed f ding math exercises will be 81 .
B: Thanks a lt.
A: I knw it’s difficult t develp such habits, but it’s 82 trying. Because they may bring yu unexpected results.
B: OK, I’ll give it a try. Hw I wish I culd be as talented as yu!
A: I have my prblems, t. My parents have high 83 fr my future. They want me t get int a tp high schl and a gd university. I’m afraid t 84 them if I fail. Smetimes I feel s wrried that everything can catch my 85 but study.
B: Oh, maybe yu can share yur feelings with them, and dn’t think t much abut the results, fcus mre n the prcess 86 . Make sure yu achieve yur daily gals. Then the final results can’t be bad.
A: Yes, yu’re right.
77．Althugh/Thugh 78．imprving 79．widely/generally/cmmnly/always/usually/mstly 80．active 81．increased/raised/higher 82．wrth 83．expectatin/expectatins 84．disappint 85．attentin 86．instead/itself
【导语】本文主要是A针对B的数学学习方面的问题给出了具体的建议。
77．根据“I’ve tried my best, I still made n prgress.”及语境可知，这两句之间是让步关系，所以可以用thugh/althugh引导让步状语从句，句首单词首字母要大写。故填Althugh/Thugh。
78．根据“ ... yur learning methds, yu’ll gradually learn much better”及语境可知，应是不断改进学习方法，就会逐渐变得更好，imprve“改进”，keep ding sth“一直做某事”，故填imprving。
79．根据“Here are sme ways that are ... believed t be helpful”可知，此处应是介绍普遍上/通常/一直大家认为有帮助的方法，widely/generally“普遍地”；cmmnly/mstly/ usually“通常”；always“一直”，故填widely/generally/cmmnly/always/usually/mstly。
80．根据“taking in class is the mst useful.”可知，an后跟以元音音素开头的形容词，在句中作定语，此处指“积极参与”，take an active part in“积极参与”。故填active。
81．根据“practice makes perfect. D mre exercises”和“yur speed f ding math exercises will be...”及语境可知，多做练习，这样速度就会提升/更高，increase/raise“提升”，will be后跟动词的过去分词构成被动语态；higher“更高的”，语境中存在比较之意，所以用比较级，形容词作表语。故填increase/raised/higher。
82．根据“I knw it’s difficult t develp such habits, but it’s ”可知，空格后是动名词，结合语境，此处指值得一试，wrth ding sth“值得做某事”，故填wrth。
83．根据“They want me t get int a tp high schl and a gd university.”可知，父母对“我”有很高的期望，expectatin“期望”，此处用单复数均可，故填expectatin(s)。
84．根据“I’m afraid if I fail.”可知，应是害怕失败后让父母失望，disappint“使失望”，t后跟动词原形，故填disappint。
85．根据“feel s wrried that everything can catch study”及语境可知，此处指“引起我的注意”，catch ne’s attentin“引起某人的注意”，故填attentin。
86．根据“and dn’t think t much abut the results, fcus mre n the prcess...”可知，此处指不要过多关注结果，反而要关注过程，或是关注过程本身，instead“反而”；itself“它本身”。故填instead/itself。
三、选词填空。从下面方框中选出10个单词，将其正确形式填入短文，使短文意思正确通顺 (每词限用一次)。(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)。

Weekends, air cnditiners (空调), take uts…are all cmmn things fr mdern peple. Have yu ever 87 if ancient peple enjyed the same lifestyles? Let’s take a lk.
N weekends: In ancient China, there were n weekends because peple did nt use a 88 calendar. But they culd still relax after wrk. During the Han Dynasty, 89 tk ne day ff every five days. There were als many public hlidays in ancient times, such as Spring Festival and Mid-Autumn Festival. Peple like farmers and businessmen usually wrked 90 f the year, but they wuld take a few days ff during Spring Festival.
Smart ways f staying cl: In ancient times, thugh peple didn’t have air cnditiners, they had their wn ways t get thrugh the ht summer. Peple 91 ice blcks in winter and stred them in an ice huse. When summer came, peple culd take the ice blcks hme and use them t make 92 rms cler.
There was a kind f pillw made f prcelain (瓷器) that felt 93 cl. Ancient peple als made bamb int bed mats t sleep n. They’re still used tday.
Takeuts nt a new thing: There was takeut as 94 back as the Sng Dynasty. In the famus Sng Dynasty painting Alng the River During the Qingming Festival (清明上河图), a takeut wrker can 95 with fd in hand.
Peple at the time even had special meal bxes fr takeut dishes. They als used warming plates r pts made f tw layers (层) f prcelain. Ht water culd be put between them 96 dishes warm.
87．wndered 88．weekly 89．fficers 90．mst 91．stred 92．their 93．cmfrtably 94．far 95．be seen 96．t keep
【导语】本文是一篇说明文，介绍古代人的生活方式。
87．句意：你有没有想过古人是否也享受着同样的生活方式？根据“Have yu ancient peple enjyed the same lifestyles?”可知，有没有想过古人是否也享受着同样的生活方式，wnder“想知道”符合语境，时态是现在完成时，动词用过去分词形式，故填wndered。
88．句意：没有周末：在中国古代，没有周末，因为人们不使用周历。根据“there were n weekends because peple did nt use ”可知，古代人们不使用周历，weekly“每周的”符合语境，作定语修饰calendar，故填weekly。
89．句意：在汉代，军官每五天休息一天。根据“During the Han Dynasty, ne day ff every five days.”可知，军官每五天休息一天。fficer“军官”符合语境，此处表示复数含义，使用名词复数形式，故填fficers。
90．句意：像农民和商人这样的人通常一年中大部分时间都在工作，但在春节期间他们会休息几天。根据“Peple like farmers and businessmen usually the year”可知，像农民和商人这样的人通常一年中大部分时间都在工作，many的最高级mst“大多数”符合语境，故填mst。
91．句意：人们在冬天储存冰块，并将它们储存在冰窖中。根据“ blcks in winter and stred them in an icehuse.”可知，人们在冬天储存冰块，stre“储存”符合语境，时态是一般过去时，动词用过去式，故填stred。
92．句意：当夏天到来的时候，人们可以把冰块带回家，用它们来使房间更凉爽。根据“peple culd take the ice blcks hme and use them t cler”可知，用冰块来使他们的房间更凉爽，their“他们的”符合语境，作定语修饰rms，故填their。
93．句意：有一种用瓷器做的枕头，摸起来凉爽舒适。根据“There was a kind f pillw made f prcelain (瓷器) that ”可知，瓷器做的枕头摸起来凉爽舒适，修饰动词felt，副词cmfrtably“舒适地”符合语境，故填cmfrtably。
94．句意：外卖并不是什么新鲜事物，早在宋朝就有了。根据“There was takeut as the Sng Dynasty.”可知，早在宋朝就有外卖了，as far back as“追溯到”符合语境，故填far。
95．句意：在宋代名画《清明上河图》中，可以看到一个外卖工人手里拿着食物。根据“a takeut wrker fd in hand”可知，外卖工人手里拿着食物可以被看到，see“看见”符合语境，主语是动作的承受者，此处是含情态动词的被动语态，故填be seen。
96．句意：可以在它们之间放热水来保持盘子的温暖。根据“Ht water culd be put between warm.”可知，在两层瓷器制成的加热板或锅中保温，keep“保持”符合语境，此处在句中表示目的，用动词不定式形式，故填t keep。
四、阅读表达。(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)
A.六选五。根据短文内容，从短文后的A～F选项中选出5个适当的选项补全短文，选项中有一个为多余选项。(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)。
Hw d we knw abut things that happened thusands f years ag when there were n vides r phts? 97 The earliest written recrds f Chinese culture are knwn as racle bne inscriptins.
Mre than 3,000 years ag, peple in the Shang Dynasty liked t ask frtune tellers (占卜师) abut the future. Fr example, where shuld I g t make mney r will my wife give birth t a by r a girl? 98 The frtune teller wuld write the questin n an racle bne, heat it up, and then read the cracks (裂纹) in it t find an answer.
Tens f thusands f racle bnes have been fund s far. 99 They culd als tell us the rigins (起源) f Chinese thughts and where ur culture cmes frm.
What’s mre, the racle bnes are key t understanding the grwth and develpment f the written frm f the Chinese language. 100 They shw us hw ur ancestrs created Chinese writing characters.
S far, we have fund abut 4,500 characters but we can nly understand fewer than 1,500 f them. 101
In 2017, UNESCO added racle bne inscriptins t its Memry f the Wrld Register (世界记忆名录). They are indeed a valuable memry f ancient China.
A．Oracle bne inscriptins aren’t useful at all nw.
B．One pssible answer may be the written recrds.
C．There are still many unknwn meanings waiting fr us t find ut.
D．Frm wrk t lve, peple asked questins abut lts f different tpics.
E．Many f the characters we use tday are similar t thse used 3,000 years ag.
F．These bnes culd tell us a lt abut hw peple lived during the Shang Dynasty.
97．B 98．D 99．F 100．E 101．C
【导语】本文主要介绍了中国最早的文字——甲骨文。
97．根据“Hw d we knw abut things that happened thusands f years ag when there were n vides r phts”以及“The earliest written recrds f Chinese culture are knwn as racle bne inscriptins.”可知此处介绍我们是如何知道数千年前发生的事情，选项B“一个可能的答案可能是书面记录”符合语境。故选B。
98．根据“Fr example, where shuld I g t make mney r will my wife give birth t a by r a girl”可知此处列举了很多问题，选项D“从工作到爱情，人们问了很多不同的问题”符合语境，故选D。
99．根据“Tens f thusands f racle bnes have been fund s fa”可知已经发现了数以万计的甲骨，选项F“这些骨头可以告诉我们很多关于商朝时期人们是如何生活的”符合语境，故选F。
100．根据“They shw us hw ur ancestrs created Chinese writing characters.”可知，它们向我们展示了我们的祖先是如何创造汉字的，所以甲骨文流传下来应与我们今天使用的字有相似之处，选项E“我们今天使用的许多字符与3000年前使用的字符相似”符合语境，故选E。
101．根据“we have fund abut 4,500 characters but we can nly understand fewer than 1,500 f them”可知我们发现了大约4500个字，但我们只能理解其中不到1500个，选项C“还有许多未知的意义等着我们去发现”符合语境。故选C。
B.任务型阅读。根据短文内容, 完成图表中所缺信息。(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)。
The human brain is an interesting and pwerful rgan, but why it des what it des is a prcess that we’re still studying. Bth the cnscius (意识) and subcnscius mind have a valuable influence n ur behavir, but mst f us nly knw a little abut hw they wrk. What fllws are smething interesting knwn t have happened r existed (存在) abut human psychlgy (心理):
1. We ften think that we’re ging t react t a future event in a certain way, nly fr the event t actually take place and us t find that we reacted (反应) cmpletely differently t hw we predicted. We place hpe in the ability f a single happening t be able t change everything, but we ften find that it desn’t d much t change hw we feel at all.
2. There is a lt f research data (数据) that suggests that fllwing a pattern fr 66 days will make it habitual. If, fr example, yu want t be better abut cleaning yur hme r ging t the gym—make a cnscius effrt t d it fr 66 days, after which it will becme a habit and will be easier t persevere (this als wrks fr breaking habits).

3. If yu’re trying t d smething creative, like writing a shrt stry r designing a dress, yu’d be better ff ding it after a lng and stressful day. This is because researchers have fund that peple can actually shw mre creativity when their brains aren’t functining as efficiently (有效的). This is ne f the main reasns why peple ften get great ideas while taking a shwer after a hard day’s wrk.
4. Knwn as “placeb sleep”, believing that yu have slept enugh will actually make yu feel mre refreshed and ready t take n the day’s challenges, even if yu actually slept t few r t many hurs. On the ther hand, always talking abut hw tired yu are will actually make yu feel tired and can be harmful t yur perfrmance.
102．
103．
104．
105．
106．
102．Facts 103．predict 104．frm r break 105．mre creative 106．imprves
【导语】本文主要介绍了人类心理的一些有趣的事情。
102．根据“What fllws are smething interesting knwn t have happened r existed (存在) abut human psychlgy”可知，本文主要介绍了一些人类心理的事实，fact“事实”，空处用复数形式，且标题需大写首字母。故填Facts。
103．根据“We ften think that we’re ging t react t a future event in a certain way, nly fr the event t actually take place and us t find that we reacted (反应) cmpletely differently t hw we predicted.”可知，我们经常认为我们会以某种方式对未来的事件做出反应，只有当事件真正发生时，我们发现我们的反应与我们预测的完全不同。由此可知，我们无法预测自己对未来事件的反应，predict“预测”，dn’t后跟动词原形。故填predict。
104．根据“If, fr example, yu want t be better abut cleaning yur hme r ging t the gym—make a cnscius effrt t d it fr 66 days, after which it will becme a habit and will be easier t persevere (this als wrks fr breaking habits).”可知，如果你想更好地打扫房间或去健身房，那就有意识地坚持66天，之后它就会成为一种习惯，也会更容易坚持（这对改掉坏习惯也很有效）。由此可知，形成或打破一种习惯需要66天，frm“形成”，break“打破”，不定式符号t后跟动词原形。故填frm r break。
105．根据“This is because researchers have fund that peple can actually shw mre creativity when their brains aren’t functining as efficiently”可知，当人们的大脑运转效率低下时，他们实际上会表现出更多的创造力，因此可知，当你累的时候，你能变得更有创造力，get是系动词，后跟形容词，mre creative“更有创造力”。故填mre creative。
106．根据“believing that yu have slept enugh will actually make yu feel mre refreshed and ready t take n the day’s challenges, even if yu actually slept t few r t many hurs.”可知，相信你已经睡够了，实际上会让你感觉更有精神，并准备好接受一天的挑战，即使你实际上睡得太少或太多。由此可知，相信自己睡得好能提高你的表现，imprve“提高”，主语是动名词，谓语动词用三单。故填imprves。
五、书面表达。（计15分）
107．假如你们学校正在举办一场名为“我的梦想”的主题活动，请你根据以下信息，用英语写一篇短文描述自己的梦想。
1. 努力学习，能够考上自己最喜欢的大学；
2. 当一名电脑工程师，建立自己的公司；
3. 建立一个慈善组织或者做志愿者，尽力去帮助那些需要帮助的人；
4. 阅读大量的书籍，获得丰富的知识，环游世界；
5. 退休后，同家人在一个美丽而安静的地方生活。
要求：100词左右，文章开头已经给出，不计入总词数。
My Dream
China Dream has becme the cmmn dream f all the Chinese peple. ___________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________例文：
My Dream
China Dream has becme the cmmn dream f all the Chinese peple. As a middle schl student, I’d like t share my dream with yu.
First f all, I will wrk hard s that I can g t my favrite cllege. As t the jb, I dream f being a gd cmputer engineer in the future. Then I will try t set up my wn cmpany. If I make enugh mney, I will set up a charity r wrk as a vlunteer t help the peple wh need help. In my spare time, I will read plenty f bks t get mre knwledge. I think I will travel arund the wrld with my family. In the future, after I retire, I will live smewhere quiet and beautiful t enjy my life with my family.
This is my dream. What abut yurs?
【详解】
【总体分析】
①题材：本文是一篇记叙文；
②时态：时态主要为“一般将来时”；
③提示：写作要点已给出，考生注意不要遗漏“要点”中退休后的生活，注意不要遗漏要点。
【写作步骤】
第一步，开篇点题，介绍自己作为一名中学生，要和大家分享自己的梦想；
第二步，具体介绍自己的梦想；
第三步，书写结语。询问大家的梦想是什么。
【亮点词汇】
①share sth. with sb.和某人分享某事
②first f all首先
③dream f梦想着
④set up建立
【高分句型】
①First f all, I will wrk hard s that I can g t my favrite cllege.（s that引导状语从句）
②If I make enugh mney, I will set up a charity r wrk as a vlunteer t help the peple wh need help.（if引导状语从句；wh引导定语从句）
An experience f watching a mvie
Time
Last weekend.
Event
I went t the cinema t watch Jurney t the West with my 22 .
Result
Sme peple there made me feel very 23 .
Causes
(1) A few guys were 24 ludly r even shuting.
(2) Sme peple threw away plastic bags, 25 and ther rubbish n the flr.
Advice
All f us are suppsed t bey the rules in 26 .
A Survey n City Walks
Q: Hw ppular are city walks?
In 2022, city walkers in China cvered 320,000 kilmeters in ttal, which is lng enugh t circle the Earth eight times. And in the first half f 2023, searches abut city walks n Xiahngshu grew by ver 30 times cmpared with the number in the same perid in 2022. And they kept grwing.
Q: Which are ppular cities fr city walking?
Arund China, Shanghai is the mst ppular fr city walking, Beijing is the secnd and Guangzhu cmes next. Chengdu is als n the list f tp 10 cities fr city walking.
Q: Wh are city walkers?
82% f the city walkers are females while males make up fr 18%. Besides, city walks interest peple at different ages. The chart n the right shws mre infrmatin.
Q: Why d peple enjy city walking?
●T slw dwn t learn a city better.
●T have a cheaper and mre relaxing way t travel.
●T have a clse cnnect in with the cmmunity arund us.
●T reduce stress.
●Others

The Nbel Prize in Medicine
Katalin Karik and Drew Weissman wn the prize fr their grundbreaking findings n mRNA．They helped the fast develpment f the mRNA vaccine (疫苗) during the COVID-19, saving millins f lives. The technlgy culd als be used t develp vaccines against ther illnesses.

Keeping Recrds f Birds
Chinese researchers have started t use the BeiDu Navigatin Satellite System (北斗卫星导航系统) t help recrd the infrmatin during birds’ flight. They tie a small psitining equipment t a bird. It can better recrd where the birds g and rest, and infrmatin abut hw they fly, such as their flight speed.

Quiet Carriages n High-speed Trains
Sme high-speed rail lines have intrduced quiet carriage services. In a quiet carriage, passengers aren’t allwed t put their phnes, ntebk cmputers r iPads n speaker. If they have t make a phne call, they must first g t the hallway t d s. Quiet carriage riders als need t make sure that their children are well-behaved t avid trubling thers.

________
The technlgy “AI” is set t make a big difference t the future. And it has been named the mst ppular wrd f 2023 by the dictinary publisher Cllins. AI was chsen because it “has develped at such a fast speed and becme the main cnversatin f 2023”, the publisher said.


anybdy businessman stre farther keep many ffice see they uncmfrtable week wnder
An experience f watching a mvie
Time
Last weekend.
Event
I went t the cinema t watch Jurney t the West with my 22 .
Result
Sme peple there made me feel very 23 .
Causes
(1) A few guys were 24 ludly r even shuting.
(2) Sme peple threw away plastic bags, 25 and ther rubbish n the flr.
Advice
All f us are suppsed t bey the rules in 26 .
A Survey n City Walks
Q: Hw ppular are city walks?
In 2022, city walkers in China cvered 320,000 kilmeters in ttal, which is lng enugh t circle the Earth eight times. And in the first half f 2023, searches abut city walks n Xiahngshu grew by ver 30 times cmpared with the number in the same perid in 2022. And they kept grwing.
Q: Which are ppular cities fr city walking?
Arund China, Shanghai is the mst ppular fr city walking, Beijing is the secnd and Guangzhu cmes next. Chengdu is als n the list f tp 10 cities fr city walking.
Q: Wh are city walkers?
82% f the city walkers are females while males make up fr 18%. Besides, city walks interest peple at different ages. The chart n the right shws mre infrmatin.
Q: Why d peple enjy city walking?
●T slw dwn t learn a city better.
●T have a cheaper and mre relaxing way t travel.
●T have a clse cnnect in with the cmmunity arund us.
●T reduce stress.
●Others
The Nbel Prize in Medicine
Katalin Karik and Drew Weissman wn the prize fr their grundbreaking findings n mRNA．They helped the fast develpment f the mRNA vaccine (疫苗) during the COVID-19, saving millins f lives. The technlgy culd als be used t develp vaccines against ther illnesses.

Keeping Recrds f Birds
Chinese researchers have started t use the BeiDu Navigatin Satellite System (北斗卫星导航系统) t help recrd the infrmatin during birds’ flight. They tie a small psitining equipment t a bird. It can better recrd where the birds g and rest, and infrmatin abut hw they fly, such as their flight speed.

Quiet Carriages n High-speed Trains
Sme high-speed rail lines have intrduced quiet carriage services. In a quiet carriage, passengers aren’t allwed t put their phnes, ntebk cmputers r iPads n speaker. If they have t make a phne call, they must first g t the hallway t d s. Quiet carriage riders als need t make sure that their children are well-behaved t avid trubling thers.

________
The technlgy “AI” is set t make a big difference t the future. And it has been named the mst ppular wrd f 2023 by the dictinary publisher Cllins. AI was chsen because it “has develped at such a fast speed and becme the main cnversatin f 2023”, the publisher said.


anybdy businessman stre farther keep many ffice see they uncmfrtable week wnder