2025年河北省邯郸市武安市大同镇中学、西通乐中学联考中考二模英语试题（中考模拟）

这是一份2025年河北省邯郸市武安市大同镇中学、西通乐中学联考中考二模英语试题（中考模拟），共14页。
2.答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。
3.所有答案均在答题卡上作答，在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。
4.答选择题时，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。
5.考试结束时，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分)
第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语(共5题；每题1分，满分5分)
1. A. Nt at all. B. Take it easy. C. Here yu are.
2. A. Silk. B. In China. C. Seven.
3. A. Gd idea! B. What a pity! C. That’s t bad.
4. A. It’s ver there. B. I hpe s. C. All right.
5. A. Hw abut ging t Central Park? B. What d yu think f Central Park? C. Culd yu tell me where Central Park is?
第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案(共13题；每题1分，满分13分)
6. Where will they g first?
A. B. C.
7. What may Judy d tmrrw?
A B. C.
8. What is Emma’s hbby?
A. Playing chess. B. Singing. C. Watching cartns.
9. Wh will start a new after-schl club?
A. Tm. B. Emma. C. The music teacher.
10. Where is Jasn ging?
A. T a restaurant. B. T a bank. C. T a theater.
11. Hw will Jasn get there?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On ft.
12. Wh did Lily g t a camera museum with?
A. Rick. B. Susan. C. Le.
13. Hw was Rick’s weekend?
A. Wnderful. B. Fun. C. Busy.
14. What advice did Lily give Rick?
A. Ask fr mre help. B. Spare time t relax. C. D his hmewrk earlier.
15. What rm wuld Linda like at first?
A A single rm. B. A duble rm. C. A family rm.
16. Hw will Linda get t the htel frm the airprt?
A. By taxi. B. By htel bus. C. By undergrund.
17. What is Linda’s flight number?
A. CA321. B. CB123. C. CA123.
18. What’s the prbable relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Father and daughter. B. Wife and husband. C. Wrker and custmer.
第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案(共7题；每题1分，满分7分)
19. When will the Pht Cmpetitin be held?
A. Next Mnday. B. Next Friday. C. Next Saturday.
20. Where will the Pht Cmpetitin take place?
A. In the schl hall. B. In Rm 4. C. In the teachers’ building.
21. What is the first thing Sam needs t d t jin in the Pht Cmpetitin?
A. Describe a pht. B. Take a pht. C. Chse a pht.
22. Why d they hld the English Club’s Evenings?
A. T imprve students’ English. B. T sell English bks. C. T intrduce freign cultures.
23. Hw lng will the English Club’s Evenings last?
A. Fr tw days. B. Fr three days. C. Fr fur days.
24. What activity will be part f the English Club’s Evenings?
A. Watching films. B. Listening t tapes. C. Making wrd cards.
25. Hw much is each ticket?
A. One dllar. B. Tw dllars. C. Three dllars.
第四节 听短文填空(共5题；每题1分，满分5分)
第二部分 语言运用(共两节，满分25分)
第一节 完形填空(共10题；每题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
With the start f a new schl year, I decided t run fr president f ur schl’s student unin!
I had always wanted t jin the student gvernment ____1____ I had many fun ideas fr schl activities. Fr example, I wanted t rganize a design cmpetitin. There students culd shw their cl clthes r ____2____ vides. I als hped t create a mini-game that everyne culd play during lunch breaks. Running fr president seemed like the best way t make these ____3____ happen!
I started by ____4____ a clrful pster with a bright picture f me I hped it wuld catch everyne’s attentin in the hallway. It was ____5____ t see s many peple supprting me! I even set up a table in the dining hall ____6____ lunchtime with candy and a mini-game. Students culd answer questins abut schl r vte (投票) fr me t win small prizes. I wanted everyne t have fun while getting t knw me and shwing their ____7____ fr me.
I als visited classrms t ____8____ why I wanted t be president. I explained my ideas fr the design cmpetitin and the mini-game, and I prmised t wrk hard t bring fun activities t schl. It tk a lt f effrt, but I ____9____ enjyed it!
In the end, I didn’t win, but I ____10____ s much! I gt better at speaking in frnt f peple, planning events and staying psitive even when things didn’t g as planned. And the best part? I made s many new friends.
1. A. befreB. afterC. thughD. because
2. A. creativeB. brkenC. privateD. terrible
3. A. dishesB. rulesC. ideasD. clubs
4. A. buyingB. makingC. savingD. mving
5. A. crrectB. bringC. amazingD. ppular
6. A. withB. duringC. frmD. since
7. A. respectB. wrldC. mneyD. supprt
8. A. lk frB. turn dwnC. talk abutD. hear frm
9. A. wiselyB. reallyC. hardlyD. sftly
10. A. regrettedB. missedC. learnedD. dubted
第二节 短文填空(共15题；每题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。
When I fund ut that my best friend frm primary schl and I wuld g t different junir high schls, I felt very sad. We had spent every day tgether. We walked t schl and talked abut ____11____ (cartn) and games. We even shared snacks during breaks and helped each ther ____12____ hmewrk. I culdn’t imagine starting junir high withut ____13____ (she). I thught ur friendship might change because we wuldn’t be in the same place every day.
But after I started my new schl, I ____14____ (find) sme unexpected gd things. Even thugh we culdn’t study tgether every day, ur talks became mre special. New experiences ____15____ (share) during ur weekend calls. My schl fcused n grup prjects while hers had sme individual (个人的) research, ____16____ we always had different pinins. These differences encuraged us ____17____ (learn) new things. When we met, it felt like tw different wrlds cming tgether. Her schl had ____18____ beautiful library that she lved shwing me. We shared stries abut ur new classmates, fun ____19____ (activity), and challenges.
As time ges n, nw we are in the ____20____ (nine) grade. I realize that ur friendship is getting even ____21____ (strng) than befre. She ____22____ (supprt) me whenever I face challenges, and I d the same fr her. We are grwing in different ways, but we are still caring abut each ther ____23____ (deep). We laugh abut funny mments and supprt each ther when things get difficult. We realize that true friendship des nt g away because ____24____distance (距离) r change. As lng as we stay in tuch and care fr each ther, ur friendship ____25____ (last) frever. N matter where we are, we will always be best friends.
第三部分 阅读(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15题；每题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
26. Amy, a 13-year-ld girl, wants t take part in the activity with her mther. Hw much shuld they pay?
A. $40.B. $30.C. $20.D. $10.
27. What can we learn frm the text?
A. Mike aged 8 can play the game himself.B. There are 3 buses t the Maze.
C. High crnstalks make the maze difficult.D. It’s better t find ur way alne.
28. What is the type f the text?
A. A reprt.B. An advertisement.C. A pem.D. A map.
B
During the Chinese New Year, Ms. Liu, a custmer f Qingjingyuan Organic Farm in Shijiazhuang’s Luquan District, bught several bxes f cherry tmates. She gave sme as gifts t friends and sent sme t her hmetwn fr her family. Ms. Liu rdered them nline and gt the fresh prduce delivered (快递) t her Beijing hme. She said the plantatin technlgy is advanced (先进的), and the tmates tasted like thse frm her childhd.
Hebei Prvince has been grwing fd fr Beijing and Tianjin since an 11-year develpment plan began. Nw, ver 40% f Beijing’s vegetables cme frm Hebei. Ms. Liu’s favrite cherry tmates are part f the “Hebei Jingcai” brand, which includes vegetables, fruit, and meat. These prducts are carefully chsen, cleaned, cut, and packaged t meet high quality standards.
In 2024, Hebei’s agricultural prducts made up 42.5% f Beijing’s market, a small increase frm the year befre. Hebei Jingcai is i… because it helps Hebei develp. It als makes sure that Beijing has plenty f fresh fd. The cmpany, which started last year, helps imprve fd quality and reduces waste by recycling unusable parts. This als cuts waste frm hmes by abut 20%.
The cmpany wrks with 85 ther Hebei cmpanies t sell their fd under the Hebei Jingcai brand. This helps prvide gd fd fr the Beijing-Tianjin-Hebei area and supprts the grwth f Hebei’s agriculture and ecnmy (经济).
29. What gifts did Ms. Liu get fr friends and family during the Chinese New Year?
A. Lngjing Tea.B. Fresh flwers.
C. Cherry tmates.D. Traditinal pictures.
30. Why Hebei Jingcai’s prducts are carefully prepared?
A. T meet high quality standards.B. T attract mre freign custmers.
C. T reduce pllutin in the city.D. T prvide enugh jbs fr farmers.
31. What is the prper wrd in the sentence “Hebei Jingcai is i... because it helps Hebei develp.”?
A. Interesting.B. Imprtant.C. Internatinal.D. Impssible.
C
Dm Pecra has lved bikes since he was a kid. But he desn’t just ride them. He taught himself t fix them by watching vides nline. By the time Dm was 10 years ld, he had brken and repaired his first bike many times.
Then ne day a shiny new muntain bike caught his eye. What a cl bike! But it wuld cst 3,000 dllars! The by asked his mm if she culd buy him the bike. “N.” said his mm, “but I can help yu raise the mney.”
That was an encuraging suggestin. An idea sn came t Dm: “Why dn’t I make mney by fixing bikes?” His mm sn set up a webpage t spread the wrds abut his services. It wrked. Dm was able t bring hme his dream bike and even had sme extra (额外的) mney left. The by decided t make gd use f it. He bught six new bikes and gave them t six kids as gifts, and after that, he cntinued t d.
Besides fixing bikes, Dm has taught himself breakdancing (霹雳舞), Rubik’s Cube (魔方) and the art f flding paper. His mm calls him a happy, funny kid. “He cares abut thers. He is creative and hard-wrking at the same time,” she said. In 2024, he gave away mre than 150 bikes t peple in need.
Nw Dm is 16 and runs his wn bike shp in his hmetwn. He des repairs and als sells bikes.
32. Hw did Dm Pecra learn t repair bikes?
A. By reading sme fixing bks.B. By helping in a bike shp.
C. By watching vides nline.D. By asking his father fr help.
33. What did Dm Pecra think f the new shiny muntain bike?
A. Beautiful and cheap.B. Cl but expensive.
C. Mdern and smart.D. Strng but t heavy.
34. What is the main idea f Paragraph 3?
A. Dm lved fixing bikes since childhd.
B. Dm ran a bike shp and became rich.
C. Dm wanted an expensive bike.
D. Dm made mney by fixing bikes and helped thers.
35. What d yu think mst prbably will happen next?
A Dm will clse his bike shp t fcus n breakdancing.
B. Dm decides t repair nly expensive bikes fr thers.
C. Dm’s mther desn’t allw him t repair bikes anymre.
D. Dm keeps running his bike shp and helping peple in need.
D
Have yu ever heard f minimalism (极简主义)? It’s a way f living that helps yu keep nly what yu really need. Instead f having t many things, minimalists fcus n making life simpler and happier. Fr example, they might thrw away things they dn’t use and spend mre time with clse friends instead f having a big scial circle.
These days, many peple lve minimalism. They share their tips nline, like hw it helps them think abut what really matters. One persn said, “It makes me realize I care t much abut things instead f myself.”
Althugh minimalism has its merits, it can als have prblems. Sme minimalists try t cntrl every part f their lives. This can make them wrry t much r want everything t be perfect. One persn shared nline, “I spend hurs deciding if I need smething, which is a waste f time!”
Trying t make life perfect can make peple feel stressed ut. If they can’t keep it up, they might feel sad r frustrated (沮丧的). Sme yung peple take minimalism t far. They stp spending mney n fun activities r seeing friends. One expert, Chen Junjie, said, “If yu avid making friends and ding things yu enjy, it can make yu feel lnely. Withut supprt, yu might miss ut n help when life gets hard.”
Minimalism is great fr living simply, but ging t far can make life bring instead f exciting. Being t strict with minimalism can als stp yu frm trying new things r dreaming big. Yung peple shuld find a balance—keep life simple but stay scial and interested. That way, yu can enjy a happy, clrful life!
36. What d minimalists d?
A. They keep all the things they have.B. They share their tips in their ffices.
C. They thrw away things they dn’t use.D. They have a big and clse scial circle.
37. What des the underlined wrd “merits” mean in Paragraph 3?
A. Advantages.B. Disadvantages.C. Mistakes.D. Challenges.
38. Why might sme minimalists feel stressed ut?
A. Because they avid fun activities.
B. Because they stp trying new things.
C. Because they spend t much time with friends.
D. Because they try t cntrl every part f their lives.
39. Which example shws the psitive side f minimalism?
A. Fcusing n what truly matters in life.
B. Aviding all scial activities with friends.
C. Buying high-quality but expensive things.
D. Spending hurs deciding whether t keep a thing.
40. What is the best title fr the text?
A. Why Minimalism Is Bad fr EveryneB. Minimalism: Finding the Right Balance
C. Minimalism: The Key t a Perfect LifeD. Hw t Thrw Away All Yur Things
第二节 阅读表达(共5题；每题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，简略回答问题。
When it cmes t mbile payments in China, the QR cde (二维码) is king. Hwever, Alipay, a mney app, intrduced a new paying methd called “Tap (碰一下)!”. It lets users pay by simply tapping their phnes n a small machine. N mre scanning cdes (扫码)—yur payment is dne after just a quick tap and a shrt high sund! This magic trick uses a technlgy called NFC, r Near Field Cmmunicatin.
NFC uses magnetic fields (磁场) t let devices (设备) “talk” t each ther. When tw phnes r a phne and a payment machine are placed very clse, they create a tiny magnetic field. This field helps them share data safely and quickly, almst like sharing secrets nly they can hear.
Sny and Philips first made NFC in 2002, but it didn’t becme ppular until Apple Pay started in 2014. Nw, NFC is everywhere! Yu can use it t pen apartment drs, share phts between phnes, r even check yur pet’s ID card by tapping yur phne. If yur pet gets lst, scanning the card helps thers return it safely.
NFC is faster and safer than QR cdes. While QR cdes need yu t scan a square bx, NFC just requires a tap. It uses strng secret cdes t prtect yur mney. Plus, since NFC nly wrks when devices are centimeters apart, thieves can’t steal yur infrmatin frm far away.
Experts say QR cdes and NFC wn’t take the place f each ther. They’re like best friends helping in different situatins. Fr example, at a parking lt, QR cdes are easier because yu can scan them frm farther away. But at stres, NFC’s quick tap saves time.
S next time yu see smene tap his r her phne t pay, yu’ll knw—it’s NFC magic, making life easier and safer!
41. Hw des the paying methd “Tap!” let users pay?
____________________________________
42. What helps tw devices share data safely and quickly?
____________________________________
43. When did NFC becme ppular?
____________________________________
44. Why is NFC cnsidered safer than QR cdes fr payments? (写出一个答案即可)
____________________________________
45. D yu prefer t use NFC r QR cdes when yu get n a bus? Why?
____________________________________
第四部分 情景交际(满分10分)
补全对话(共5题；每题2分，满分10分)
根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
(Kate wn a speech cmpetitin. A reprter is interviewing her at schl.)
Reprter: Hi, Kate. I’m a reprter frm Teen Talk. I knw yu wn the schl English speech cmpetitin yesterday. Cngratulatins!
Kate: Thanks.
Reprter: ________46________
Kate: Sure, g ahead.
Reprter: I’ve seen the cmpetitin frm the beginning t the end, and yu really did a gd jb. ________47________
Kate: I have learned English since I was five.
Reprter: Oh, s early. Yu really like it, dn’t yu?
Kate: Yeah! It’s my favrite subject
Reprter: ________48________
Kate: I like it because it helps me learn mre abut the wrld.
Reprter: ________49________
Kate: Yes. I jined Perfect English Club tw years ag. I practice a lt there and make great prgress.
Reprter: Ww! Are yu ging t study abrad?
Kate: N, I’m nt. I dn’t think it’s necessary t study abrad.
Reprter: Oh, that sunds right. Thanks fr yur time!
Kate: ________50________
第五部分 写作(满分15分)
书面表达
51. 人工智能已经深度融入我们的日常生活。假设你是李华，学校科技节将举办主题为“我们生活中的人工智能”的英语演讲比赛。请你根据以下提示写一篇英语演讲稿。
提示：
(1) What can AI d fr us? (search fr infrmatin quickly, smart hmes,…)
(2) What wrries d yu have abut AI? (wrkers may lse jbs, privacy risks,…)
(3) What’s yur pinin n AI?
注意：
(1)短文中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名。
(2)词数80个左右 (开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数)。
Gd mrning, everyne! Tday, I’m hnred t stand here and share my thughts n “Artificial Intelligence in Our Daily Lives”. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s all. Thank yu fr listening!
2025年河北省初中学业水平考试
英语
注意事项：1.本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。
3.所有答案均在答题卡上作答，在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。
4.答选择题时，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。
5.考试结束时，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分)
第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语(共5题；每题1分，满分5分)
1. A. Nt at all. B. Take it easy. C. Here yu are.
2. A. Silk. B. In China. C. Seven.
3. A. Gd idea! B. What a pity! C. That’s t bad.
4. A. It’s ver there. B. I hpe s. C. All right.
5. A. Hw abut ging t Central Park? B. What d yu think f Central Park? C. Culd yu tell me where Central Park is?
第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案(共13题；每题1分，满分13分)
6. Where will they g first?
A. B. C.
7. What may Judy d tmrrw?
A. B. C.
8. What is Emma’s hbby?
A. Playing chess. B. Singing. C. Watching cartns.
9. Wh will start a new after-schl club?
A. Tm. B. Emma. C. The music teacher.
10. Where is Jasn ging?
A. T a restaurant. B. T a bank. C. T a theater.
11. Hw will Jasn get there?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On ft.
12. Wh did Lily g t a camera museum with?
A. Rick. B. Susan. C. Le.
13. Hw was Rick’s weekend?
A. Wnderful. B. Fun. C. Busy.
14. What advice did Lily give Rick?
A. Ask fr mre help. B. Spare time t relax. C. D his hmewrk earlier.
15. What rm wuld Linda like at first?
A. A single rm. B. A duble rm. C. A family rm.
16. Hw will Linda get t the htel frm the airprt?
A. By taxi. B. By htel bus. C. By undergrund.
17. What is Linda’s flight number?
A. CA321. B. CB123. C. CA123.
18. What’s the prbable relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Father and daughter. B. Wife and husband. C. Wrker and custmer.
第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案(共7题；每题1分，满分7分)
19. When will the Pht Cmpetitin be held?
A. Next Mnday. B. Next Friday. C. Next Saturday.
20. Where will the Pht Cmpetitin take place?
A. In the schl hall. B. In Rm 4. C. In the teachers’ building.
21. What is the first thing Sam needs t d t jin in the Pht Cmpetitin?
A. Describe a pht. B. Take a pht. C. Chse a pht.
22. Why d they hld the English Club’s Evenings?
A. T imprve students’ English. B. T sell English bks. C. T intrduce freign cultures.
23. Hw lng will the English Club’s Evenings last?
A. Fr tw days. B. Fr three days. C. Fr fur days.
24. What activity will be part f the English Club’s Evenings?
A. Watching films. B. Listening t tapes. C. Making wrd cards.
25. Hw much is each ticket?
A. One dllar. B. Tw dllars. C. Three dllars.
第四节 听短文填空(共5题；每题1分，满分5分)
第二部分 语言运用(共两节，满分25分)
第一节 完形填空(共10题；每题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
【1~10题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. C
第二节 短文填空(共15题；每题1分，满分15分)
【11~25题答案】
【答案】11. cartns
12. with 13. her
14. fund 15. were shared
16. s 17. t learn
18. a 19. activities
20. ninth 21. strnger
22. supprts
23. deeply 24. f
25. will last
第三部分 阅读(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15题；每题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【26~28题答案】
【答案】26. B 27. C 28. B
B
【29~31题答案】
【答案】29. C 30. A 31. B
C
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. C 33. B 34. D 35. D
D
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. C 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. B
第二节 阅读表达(共5题；每题2分，满分10分)
【41~45题答案】
【答案】41. By simply tapping their phnes n a small machine./It lets users pay by simply tapping their phnes n a small machine.
42. A tiny magnetic field.
43. In 2014.
44. Because NFC uses strng secret cdes t prtect yur mney./Because NFC nly wrks when devices are centimeters apart.
45. NFC. Because it is safer and quicker./Because it saves my time./QR cdes. Because my phne desn’t have NFC./Because it’s my habit t use QR cdes.
第四部分 情景交际(满分10分)
补全对话(共5题；每题2分，满分10分)
【46~50题答案】
【答案】46. Culd/Can I ask yu sme questins?
47. Hw lng have yu learned English?
48. Why d yu like English?
49. Did yu jin any English clubs?
50. My pleasure!/Yu’re welcme./…
第五部分 写作(满分15分)
书面表达
【51题答案】
【答案】参考范文：
Gd mrning, everyne! Tday, I’m hnred t stand here and share my thughts n “Artificial Intelligence in Our Daily Lives”.
Nw we can see all kinds f AI prducts in ur daily lives. AI helps us search fr infrmatin quickly, makes ur hmes smarter, and even helps dctrs. With the help f AI, things that tk hurs nw take minutes.
Hwever, AI als brings prblems. I wrry sme wrkers might lse their jbs. I’m als wrried abut privacy risks. What’s wrse, we students depend n AI t much and we may lse the ability t d things n ur wn.
In my pinin, AI is like a knife—it can cut fd r hurt peple. I believe that if we put AI t gd use, we will live a better life.
That’s all. Thank yu fr listening!Infrmatin Sheet
Name: Le
Cme frm: 26. ________
Age: 27. ________ years ld
Subjects: 28. likes ________
29. finds it ________ t learn physics well
Sprt: 30. plays ________ n his schl team
Cme One, Cme All, t the Amazing Maze (迷宫)!
Make yur way thrugh a crnfield (玉米地)that has been changed int a living maze fr all ages.
Our crnstalks (玉米秆) are 6 feet (2m) high, making this maze a real challenge! Find a way thrugh the maze alne, r use a whistle (口哨) t call a trained guide t help yu thrugh it.
Attentin: children under 10 CAN’T explre alne!
Over 16: $20
Under 16: half price
√Take Bus N.7 r 36 t Plk Rad.
√Self-drive (The signs n McClintck will help yu.)
Infrmatin Sheet
Name: Le
Cme frm: 26. ________
Age: 27. ________ years ld
Subjects: 28. likes ________
29. finds it ________ t learn physics well
Sprt: 30. plays ________ n his schl team