2025年河南省平顶山市鲁山县两所中学二模英语试题（中考模拟）

这是一份2025年河南省平顶山市鲁山县两所中学二模英语试题（中考模拟），共11页。
注意事项：
1.本试卷共8页，六个大题，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2.本试卷上不要答题，请按答题卡上注意事项的要求，直接把答案填写在答题卡上，写在试卷上的答案无效。
3.答卷前请将密封线内的项目填写清楚。
一、听力理解(20小题，每小题1分，共20分)
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每
( )1. Hw is Tm feeling?扁。
A. Great. B. Nt bad. C. Terrible.
( )2. Can the man jin the wman fr dinner?
A. Yes, he can. B. N, he can't. C. We dn't knw.
( )3. Where are the speakers?
A. In a restaurant. B. In a library. C. In a hspital.
( )4. When will the mvie start?
A. At 6:30 pm. B. At 7:30 pm. C. At 8:30 pm.
( )5: What is the wman asking fr?
A. Directins. B. Time. C. Weather.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
( )6. What kind f party is it?
A. Birthday party. B. Cstume party. C. Welcme party.
( )7. What will the man wear?
A. A Ne Zha cstume. B. A superher cstume. C. A dg cstume.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
( )8. What did Sam learn in the science class?
A. We need knwledge t take care f plants.
B. It's easy t grw plants quickly.
C. The imprtance f sunlight, water and air fr plants.
( )9. Wh is Sam's science teacher?
A. Mr. Brwn. B. Mr. Green. C. Mr. White.
听下面一段独白，回答第10 至第12 三个小题。
( )10. What is the speaker's favrite hbby?
A. Writing. B. Reading. C. Drawing.
( )11. Hw lng des the speaker read every day?
A. Half an hur. B. Tw hurs. C. An hur.
( )12. Why des the speaker like reading?
A. It's a gd way t kill time.
B. It helps him make mre friends.
C. It's relaxing and helps him learn new things.听下面一段对话，回答第13 至第15 三个小题。
( )13. What did Jhn d ver the weekend?
A. Went hiking. B. Went shpping. C. Went t a cncert.
( )14. Where did Jhn g?
A. The Blue Muntains. B. The Red Muntains.
C. The Green Muntains.
( )15. What des the wman think abut Jhn's activity?
A. She thinks it's bring. B. She thinks it's fun.
C. She thinks it's tiring.
第三节 听下面一篇短文，根据你所听到的内容，填写表格中所缺单词，每空一词。短文听两遍。
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
二、阅读理解(20小题，每小题2分，共40分)
阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。
A
The z—a 16. ________ place t visit
Interesting animals
17. _______
· Kings f the frest. Strng and brave.
Pandas
Cute and eat 18. _______ .
Elephants
The 19. _______ animals n land. Lng trunks and big ears. Friendly.
Mnkeys
●Active and like t 20. _______ arund. Eat bananas.
Are yu interested in histry, art, r science? D yu want t learn mre abut the wrld arund yu while getting valuable experience and skills? Our museum will initiate the 2025 yuth vlunteer training prgram during the summer vacatin. Anyne aged frm 13 t 18 is welcme t vlunteer at ur museum!
The valuable experience fr yu
As a museum vlunteer, yu can help with shws and prvide supprt fr ur visitrs. Whatever interests and skills yu have, yu will find this jb meaningful. Vlunteering at a museum is a great way t learn abut different cultures, histry and scientific discveries. It can als help yu develp new skills, such as cmmunicatin skills,teamwrk skills and prblem-slving abilities.
The applicatin(申请) time and place
Yu can apply fr this vlunteer jb frm July 1st-5th, 2025.The interview time will be n July 8th, 2025 at the Multimedia Hall(多媒体大厅) f the museum.
The interview cntents(内容)
The interview includes at least a ne-minute self-intrductin and a 5-minute speech.
Yu can chse ne f the fllwing fr yur speech: TheReasn Why I Want t Be a Vlunteer, The Best Museum I Have EverVisited, My Abilities t Be a Vlunteer, and My VlunteeringExperience.
If yu are willing t becme a museum vlunteer, please call us at 075746785.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
( )21. What des the underlined wrd“initiate” mean?
A. Put up. B. Turn up. C. Start up. D. Shw up.
( )22. What can yu d as a museum vlunteer accrding t the text?
①Help with shws.
②Wrk with freigners.
③Prvide supprt fr the visitrs.
④Learn abut different cultures.
A.①②③ B.①③④ C.②③④ D.①②④
( )23. When can Susan apply fr the vlunteer jb?
A. On June 2. B. On June 5. C. On July 4. D. On July 9.
( )24. Hw lng may an interview last accrding t the text?
A. 1m inute. B. 3m inutes. C. 5m inutes. D. 7 minutes.
( )25. Which f the fllwing can be put in ▲ ?
A. Vlunteers in the museum!
B. Cme t visit the museum!
C. The museum has everything!
D. The museum is waiting fr yu!
B
Will culdn't wait fr September when schl wuld start. It was earlyAugust, and he was at the same summer camp he had been ging t fr the last five years. His dad went t the camp when he was a by and lved it, sWill didn't want t disappint his dad by telling him that he didn't even like it.
By the middle f August, Will had had mre than enugh. He had had enugh f the hrses, enugh f the baseball games, and enugh f the camp fd.
He wrte t his mm and asked her if she wuld pick him up early,but he didn't want his mm t tell his dad. She replied in a letter which said, “I can't d that. I am always hnest with yur dad. If yu really want t leave, I will talk t him abut it.”
Will was still t wrried abut disappinting his dad, s he wrte back t his mm that he wuld stay fr the last tw weeks and try t make the best f it. He asked his mm if she wuld make his favrite meal when he gt hme.
During that last week, Will was lking s frward t the meal his mm wuld be making that every time he ate a camp meal he imagined he was eating his mm's cking. All f a sudden, the fd didn't taste s bad.
Will decided t be hnest with his camp cunselrs(顾问). He tld the head hrseback cunselr that he wasn't cmfrtable with the hrse he had been given. The cunselr asked Will which hrse he might feel better riding. Will was then given t Misty fr the last week, and he started t like hrseback riding.
Will never liked playing baseball because he didn't like playing baseball. He tld the baseball cunselr, and the cunselr switched(调整)him t play catcher. Will started t actually like baseball.
When Will's parents came t pick him up frm camp, he said t them in all hnesty, “This was the best summer at camp ever.” He then added that he culdn't wait fr next year's camp, and he might even want t stay fr an extra week r tw.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
( )26. What did Will expect at the summer camp?
A. T make new friends. B. T write t his mm.
C. T enjy meals at hme. D. T end the summer camp.
( )27. What is Will like accrding t the passage?
A. Caring and hnest. B. Naughty and active.
C. Outging and smart. D. Shy and strng.
( )28. Hw did Will make himself feel better at the camp?
A. By telling the truth. B. By writing t his mm.
C. By attending activities. D. By making new friends.
( )29. Which f the fllwing shws the crrect rder f the stry?
a. Will praised the camp.
b. Will went t the camp t please his dad.
c. Will stayed till the end f the camp.
d. Will talked t cunselrs.
e. Will wrte a letter t his mm.
A. d-b-e-c-a B. b-e-d-c-a C. c-e-d-b-a D. a-e-c-d-b
( )30. What can we learn frm this text?
A. We shuld jin a summer camp.
B. We shuld make full use f time.
C. We shuld speak ut ur thughts.
D. We shuld get ut f parents' cntrl.
C
When yu hear hp(跳), hp, hp, what cmes t mind? Is it a kangar,a rabbit, r bth?
Bth rabbits and kangars hp n their large hind legs. But, a rabbit's frnt feet tuch the grund and a kangar's dn't! A kangar's frnt legs are t shrt and lk mre like arms. Rabbits can be fund all ver the wrld and kangars nly live in Australia. Which ne d yu think yu have a better chance f seeing?
A baby rabbit is called a kit and a baby kangar is called a jey. Mst kits will live in undergrund nests with their mther. A jey, hwever, will stay warm in its mther's puch. That's a pcket in the frnt f her bdy.
Kangars have big legs and lng tails. Sme can be as tall as 6 feet,r 1.8 meters. They may weigh ver 100 punds, r 45 kilgrams. They might have brwn, red, r gray fur. Rabbits are very different frm kangars!Mst nly weigh 5 punds, r 2.3 kilgrams. They have shrt, fluffy tails.Rabbits sit n their frnt and hind legs when they' re nt hpping. Mst rabbits will nly be 2 feet, r 0.6 meters, lng. They may als be brwn and gray, as well as ther clrs.
Bth animals have tall ears. Their ears pint straight up!Nw that yu knw mre abut them, which animal wuld yu ask t just hp n ver?
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
( )31. Why des the writer ask questins in Paragraph One?
A. T lead in the tpic.
B. T cmpare rabbits and kangars.
C. T tell us a result f a survey.
D. T let readers knw what“hp” means.
( )32. What can we learn abut rabbits frm the passage?
A. Rabbits have lng tails.
B. Rabbits can grw t 1.8 meters tall.
C. Rabbits live everywhere but Australia.
D. Rabbits can tuch the grund with their frnt legs.
( )33. While reading this passage, Sam drew a picture f kangars and tk ntes. Which ne is right?
① A-straight ears
②B-puch
③C-hind leg
④D-kit
Sam's ntes
A.①② B.②③ C.③④ D.①④
、 )34. Hw des the writer cmpare kangars and rabbits?
A. By telling a stry that invlves bth animals.
B. By first discussing their living places, and then their lks.
C. By fcusing nly n their differences withut mentining similarities.
D. By cmparing ne thing at a time, such as mvement, babies,and size.
( )35. Where is this passage mst prbably taken frm?
A. A textbk abut bilgy.
B. A strybk abut animals.
C. A magazine abut Australia.
D. A newspaper abut technlgy.
D
The apartments we live in are“grwing up”! On March 9, the gvern-ment said that the minimum ceiling height(最低住宅层高) will be raised frm 2.8 meters t 3 meters.
What difference will the 20cm make? It will make larger and mre cmfrtable living spaces. Higher ceilings allw fr bigger windws. 36 Tday, apartment buildings usually have things like underflr heating(地暖) t prvide a better living experience. 37 Raising the ceiling height can help slve this prblem.
38 Smene wh is 184 cm tall can reach up t 2.26 meters with their arm raised. In a rm with a lw ceiling, they can almst tuch it,reprted the Shanghai Observer.
Accrding t CCTV, sme cities like Tianjin have already included
rules t raise the ceiling height t between 3 and 3.3 meters in the past few years. 39
Peple in China have mved frm just having a hme t lking fr quality. 40 The gvernment has intrduced many plicies t supprt peple's pursuit(追求) f happiness.
根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选页，使文章意思通顺、内容完整。
A. But they take up space in yur hme.
B. Chinese peple have generally been getting taller.
C. This shws that the living standards have largely imprved.
D. This can make lighting better and let mre fresh air enter the apartment.
F Different places have different ceiling height rules because f lcal needs.
36. 37. 38. 40. 39.
三、完形填空(15小题，每小题1分，共15分)
先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案，并将其标号填入题前括号内。
A freign girl named Kris psted a sad pht nline. It lked like her byfriend made her 41 . Sme nice Chinese peple tried t 42 her up. They asked her t find smene better. Sme made 43 Chinglish t make her feel happy, such as“Yu swan(天鹅), he frg(青蛙).”
This became a 44 with freigners. Many fund it cl, shared it a lt nline and made funny pictures 45 it.
“I need Chinese netizens(网友) in my life wh call the peple that have 46 me frgs,” said a freign Internet user, shwing her lve fr the 47 . Sme f them wanted t knw 48 Chinese peple use“swan” and“frg” t describe this cuple. After 49 it, they learned that it came frm the famus ld Chinese stry f the beautiful swan and the ugly tad(癞蛤蟆). And gt 50 in the Chinese stries behind Chinglish.
In the past, peple ften 51 thse wh spke Chinglish because it was full f grammar mistakes. Hwever, with glbalizatin(全球化), peple frm different 52 can nw share their ideas mre ften. Different 53 f English are becming cmmn and even accepted. English with lcal features can als be ppular. Fr example, the well-knwn “add il”has nw appeared in the Oxfrd dictinary and peple use it 54 . The phrase shws Chinese culture.
“ 55 I understd the full meaning, it became much funnier,” saidCdy, a yung man frm New Zealand, when asked abut“yu swan, he frg”. “It's great that mre Chinese culture is being shared with the rest f the wrld,” he tld China Daily.
( )41. A. jump B. leave C. laugh D. cry
( )42. A. shut B. cheer C. put D. pick
( )43. A. funny B. true C. beautiful D. difficult
( )44. A. hit B. rush C. part D. questin
( )45. A. by B. under C. abve D. with
( )46. A. helped B. hurt C. fund D. taught
( )47. A. stry B. picture C. expressin D. passage
( )48. A. why B. hw C. when D. where
( )49. A. running int B. getting int C. lking int D. turning int
( )50. A. interested B. excited C. relaxed D. surprised
( )51. A. failed B. included C. hated D. crrected
( )52. A. cuntries B. cities C. twns D. villages
( )53. A. styles B. places C. subjects D. tastes
( )54. A. quietly B. strangely C. widely D. patiently
( )55. A. Befre B. Until C. Once D. Thugh
四、语篇填空(15 小题，每小题1分，共15分)
第一节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
interest, deep, same, much, sleep, I, happy, prblem, inspire, fail
Of all the peple I meet during my life, there are a lt f admirable and respectable peple such as my parents, dctrs and plice fficers. But the ne that I respect 56 is my English teacher, Lydia. I am 57 impressed by what she did fr me.
When I was in Grade Seven in junir high schl, I shwed n 58 in English. I was s lazy that I spent mst f the time 59 in English class and never tk ntes. I seldm handed in hmewrk, s I 60 every examinatin. Gradually, I went unnticed. Sitting in the lastrw, I lst 61 in daydreaming.
Frtunately, a new teacher came during the secnd year and changed my situatin. Nticing my 62 , she invited me t the ffice and had a talk with me. She patiently helped me t slve the prblems and taught me t learn English in an interesting way. I was 63 by her sincere care. Frm that day n, nthing was the 64 fr me. I studied much harder and my effrts paid ff. Sn, I passed the very first English test in my junir high. Iculdn't wait t share my 65 with Lydia and she was prud f me.
Thanks t my English teacher, I was able t make prgress in English and that is imprtant fr my future develpment. And that's why she is the ne I respect mst.
56. 59. 60. 58. 57. 61. 62. 65. 64. 65.
第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
By 2030, ver 70 percent f adults and 30 percent f children in China are expected t be verweight. 66 slve the prblem, the gvernment has created a new guideline. The guideline intrduces methds fr treating the cnditin, public supprt services and advice 67 keeping a healthy weight. Fr example, it pints ut 68 the ppular ketgenic diet(生酮饮食) can help peple lse weight rapidly in the shrt term. 69 , it must be dne strictly under a dctr's rders fr safety. The guideline als suggests mre 70 150 minutes f exercise each week. When it cmes t cking, biling fd is healthier than deep-frying.
67. 68. 69. 70.
五、补全对话(5小题，每小题2 分，共10分)
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Hi, Lisa! I haven't seen yu fr tw weeks.71. ?
B: Oh, hi, Mark! I have been t my mther's hmetwn— Yantai. I just came back frm a beach cleanup vlunteer prject last weekend.
A: Hw was the experience?
B: 72. . We cllected ver 100 kg f plastic waste.
A: Ww! It seems that yu really care abut the envirnment. 73. ?
B: Yes, I' ll jin in an envirnmental prtectin activity in ur city next mnth. Wuld yu like t cme?
A: Of curse! What can I d?
B:74. .
A: Sunds gd. By the way, d yu have any plans fr the summer hliday?
B:I'm thinking f vlunteering at a wildlife center.75. ?
A: I haven't decided yet. Maybe I can jin yu?
B: Perfect! Let's d it later.
六、书面表达(20分)
为了保证学生的休息时间，很多学校将课间从十分钟延长到了十五分钟。对此，有人表示欢迎和支持，也有人持反对意见。对于这种现象，你是怎么想的呢?请写一篇短文，介绍你的观点及原因，并且对于如何利用好课间给出自己的建议。
要求：1.短文应包括所有的写作要点，条理清楚，行文连贯，可适当发挥；
2.短文中不能出现真实的人名、校名、地名等信息；
3.词数100左右，短文开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Nw many schls have extended break time between classes frm 10minutes t 15 minutes. Many say it's a gd idea while thers dn't.







英语答案
一、听力理解(20小题，每小题1分，共20分)
1-5BBCCA 6-10BAAAB 11-15 CCAAB
16. wnderful 17. Tigers 18. bamb
19. biggest 20. jump
二、阅读理解(20小题，每小题2分，共40分)
21-25CBCDD 26-30DAABC
31-35 ADBDA 36-40DABEC
三、完形填空(15小题，每小题1分，共15分)
41-45 DBAAD 46-50BCACA
51-55 DAACC
四、语篇填空(15小题，每小题1分，共15分)
第一节
56. mst 57. deeply 58. interest 59. sleeping
60. failed 61. myself 62. prblems
63. inspired 64. same 65. happiness
第二节
66. T 67. n/ abut 68. that 69. Hwever
70. than
五、补全对话(5小题，每小题2分，共10分)
71. Where have yu been (recently)
72. It was tiring but meaningful/...
73. Will yu d mre vlunteer wrk in the future
74. Yu can help plant trees in the park/...
75. What abut yu?/ D yu have any plans
六、书面表达(20分)
Nw many schls have extended break time between classes frm 10 minutes t 15 minutes.Many say it's a gd idea while thers dn't.
I think extending break time frm 10 t 15minutes is a gd idea. First, students need mre time t relax after lng classes. Sitting fr t lng is tiring, and a lnger break helps them refresh their minds. Secnd, with extra time, students can d mre activities, like walking utside, drinking water, r chatting with friends. This makes them happier and mre fcused in the next class.
T make gd use f the break, students shuld avid running r playing t wildly.
Instead, they can play little games, take deep breaths, r make preparatins fr the next lessn.These can help them bth relax and study well.
听力材料
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. W: Hi, Tm! Hw are yu ding?
M: Nt bad, thanks. Just busy with my new prject.
2. W: Wuld yu like t jin us fr dinner tnight?
M:I'd lve t, but I have t finish my reprt.
W: What a pity!
3. W: Mr. Brwn, I' ve been feeling cld fr tw days.
M: Let me take yur temperature first.
4. W: What time shall we meet fr the mvie?
M: Hw abut 7:30 pm at the cinema?
W: That's t early. The mvie starts at 8:30 pm.
5. W: Excuse me,I need t buy sme stamps. Hw can I get t the nearest pst ffice?
M: G straight fr tw blcks, then turn left. Yu will see the pst ffice between the super-market and the bkstre.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
W: Are yu cming t the party this weekend?
M: Yes, I am. I heard it's ging t be a cstume party.
W: That's right. What are yu ging t wear?
M: I'm thinking f dressing up as Ne Zha.
W: That sunds fun!
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
W: Hi, Sam. Hw's yur day ging?
M: Nt bad. I'm just a little tired because I had a lng day at schl.
W: Oh, I see. What did yu d tday?
M: We had a science class in the mrning. We did an experiment abut plant grwth.
W: That sunds interesting. What did yu learn?
M: We learned that plants need sunlight, water and air t grw and different plants grw at different speeds. In rder t take gd care f plants, we need t make gd use f the knwledge.
W: Ww, that's really cl. I wish I culd have a science class like that. By the way, wh is yur science teacher?
M: Mr. Brwn. I like him mre than my math teacher and my Chinese teacher, Mr. Green andMr. White.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12 三个小题。
Hell, everyne. Tday I want t talk abut my favrite hbby— reading. I lve reading all kinds f bks, such as nvels, science bks and histry bks. Reading can help me learn new things and pen up a whle new wrld t me. I usually read fr an hur every day befre I g t bed. I als like t share my favrite bks with my friends. We ften discuss the stries and characters in the bks. I think reading is a great way t relax and imprve myself. I hpe yu can als find the jy f reading.
听下面一段对话，回答第13 至第15 三个小题。
W: Hi, Jhn. Hw was yur weekend?
M: It was great! I went hiking with sme friends.
W: That sunds fun. Where did yu g?
M: We went t the Blue Muntains. The view was amazing.
W: I shuld try that smetime. I went t the RedMuntains last year, but I' ve never been t theBlue Muntains.
M: Yu definitely shuld. It's a great way t relax and enjy nature. And the Blue Muntains is far mre beautiful than the Red Muntains.
第三节 听下面一篇短文，根据你所听到的内容，填写表格中所缺单词，每空一词。短文读两遍。
Have yu ever been t a z? There are many interesting animals there. First, there are tigers.They are the king f the frest. They are very strng and brave. Next, there are pandas. They are very cute and they like t eat bamb. Then, there are elephants. They are the biggest animals n land.They have lng trunks and big ears. They are very friendly t peple. Finally, there are mnkeys. They are very active and they like t jump arund. They als like t eat bananas. These animals are all very interesting and they make the z a wnderful place t visit. If yu have a chance, yu shuld g t the z and see these lvely animals with yur wn eyes.