硚口（经开）区2024-2025学年上学期元调九年级英语试卷（word版含标答）

这是一份硚口（经开）区2024-2025学年上学期元调九年级英语试卷（word版含标答），共11页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，选择填空，完形填空，阅读理解，词与短语填空，综合填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共 5 小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有 5 秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Pp music. B. My teacher. C. On Tuesday.
2. A. At 9: 30. B. In the bank. C. Mzart.
3. A. With Alice. B. Jim’s. C. It’s green.
4. A. Frm the bkstre. B. Very cheap. C. Gd idea.
5. A. It’s big. B. I’d lve t. C. Fr half a year.
第二节 (共 7 小题，每小题 1 分，满分7分)
听下面7段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6. Where is the bkstre?
A. Behind the bank. B. Acrss frm the bank. C. Beside the bank.
7. When des the by practice playing the vilin?
A. In the mrning. B. In the afternn. C. In the evening.
8. Hw did the by feel at last?
A. He felt wrried. B. He felt excited. C. He felt scared.
9. What was Sue like in the past?
A. Shy. B. Outging. C. Friendly.
10. Wh is the inventr f the rbt?
A. The science teacher. B. The cmputer teacher. C. The librarian.
11. What will the speakers take with them?
A. Train tickets. B. Sme phts. C. Smart phnes.
12. Which f the fllwing university des the girl want t enter?
A. B. C.
第三节 (共 13 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 13 分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答 13 至 15 三个小题。
13. Wh did the by g shpping with yesterday?
A. Jack. B. Linda. C. His mther.
14. Which f the fllwing things did the by d first?
A. Did hmewrk. B. Went shpping. C. Had dinner.
15. Where will the by and his mther g?
A. T Linda’s hme. B. T the shpping center. C. T the KFC.
听下面一段对话，回答 16 至 18 三个小题。
16. What is the man interested in?
A. Music. B. Sprts. C. Art.
17. What des the wman want t d?
A. Draw pictures. B. Take phts. C. Sing mdern sngs.
18. When will the speakers prbably meet?
A. 9: 45. B. 10: 10. C. 10: 30.
听下面一段对话，回答19至21三个小题。
19. What will Mary d n Vlunteer Day?
A. T cheer the sick kids up. B. T wrk as a dctr. C. T help the ld in hspital.
20. What wuld Mike d tmrrw?
A. Cleaning up the parks. B. Visiting the hspital. C. Helping the plice.
21. What day is it tday?
A. Friday. B. Saturday. C. Sunday.
听下面一段独白，回答 22 至 25 四个小题。
22. Why did the Tang peple welcme the Lin Dance?
A. Because they liked lins best. B. Because they were gd at hunting.
C. Because they thught lins brught gd luck.
23. What is the mst imprtant fr the Lin Dance?
A. Music. B. Cstumes. C. Skill.
24. Which place is famus fr the Lin Dance?
A. Haiku. B. Fshan. C. Guangzhu.
25. What can be learned frm the text?
A. The creatr f the lin dance. B. The histry f The Lin Dance.
C. The rigin stry f the Lin Dance.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26. —Dn’t yu think Han Meimei is the best singer arund the wrld?
— ____________ Li Hua is.
A. I agree. B. I dn’t knw. C. Oh, really? D. Yu’re kidding!
27. —Grandma, was yur life very difficult when yu were a kid?
—Oh, ____________. My family had several mdern inventins.
A. f curse it was B. nt really C. it depended D. I hpe s
28. —Ms. Lu, I’ll wrry I’m falling behind if I stp staying up late t study mre.
—Take yur time! As we knw Rme ____________ in a day!
A. didn’t build B. is built C. wasn’t built D. build
29. —I wuld be an artist if I hadn’t given up painting t learn medicine.
—There is n “if’ in life and every ____________ has its meaning.
A. curse B. mistake C. agreement D. chice
30. —Why did Alice refuse t wrk with her classmates as a team?
—Because she thught ____________ f them culd match her.
A. nne B. nbdy C. any D. neither
31. —Class, what des grwing—up mean t yu?
—As fr me, it’s a ____________ but jyful prcess with ups and dwns.
A. accidental B. painful C. smth D. successful
32. —Lily, hw d yu get used t mre schlwrk and less spare time?
—These challenging changes have taught me hw t ____________ my time better.
A. manage B. kill C. cst D. lse
33. —D yu think the persn yu saw at the party is Susan?
—I ____________ it because she was at wrk at that mment.
A. recall B. mentin C. attend D. dubt
34. —Mre and mre peple are n a diet t lse weight.
—But mst f them ____________ putting mre back n.
A. cut up B. end up C. take up D. lk up
35. —The idim “Save fr a rainy day!” tells us ____________.
A. when can peple prepare fr the future B. why shuld peple save mney
C. hw imprtant planning fr the future is D. what peple d n a rainy day
三、完形填空 (共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Three years ag, my husband and I started the “Farm Camp” prgram. We wanted city kids t 36 what we had enjyed and learned n ur family farm. We hst ne r tw families at a time. Mst f them cme fr a week. Every mrning, I take the kids thrugh a tw-hur hands-n farm class.
There is a lt t learn. Fr example, I dn’t 37 a child t knw hw lng it takes fr a chick t hatch (孵化) . But I’m ften 38 when they dn’t knw hw t climb ver a gate.
Dn’t get me 39 . I lve educating kids and then cheering them n when they manage t d these simple tasks 40 . It’s just that, tw generatins ag, these skills were 41 knwledge. It’s hard fr city kids tday t get t 42 real tls r take n tugh chres. These can be unpleasant and even 43 , s it’s understandable that parents want t keep their children away frm them. The 44 is, when they d, smething essential (必需的) is lst.
The same is true when it cmes t a mre 45 tpic. In the beginning, I didn’t talk abut death with the visitrs. But my wn kids, nw 20 and 25, had 46 the death f their belved farm animals, s I 47 that the “Farm Camp” kids can d the same. Nw I just tell them that the piglets will end up as bacn (培根) .
Farms can als be 48 . We’ve never had a serius injury (损伤) ; but cuntless kids have been stung by bees, pecked by a chicken, r kicked t the grund by a naughty pny. Children are ften 49 than we think.
At first, I was wrried the chres wuld bre my yung visitrs, but much t my surprise, the ppsite is true. They find the chres fun. When they cme fr 50 visits, as s many d, they eagerly (急切地) ask me, “When d we get t shvel (铲) the pp?”
36. A. experience B. treat C. cllect D. discver
37. A. hpe B. wish C. allw D. expect
38. A. surprised B. plite C. patient D. cnfident
39. A. calm B. wrng C. angry D. sad
40. A. badly B. luckily C. independently D. hnestly
41. A. cmmn B. secret C. perfect D. special
42. A. realize B. prduce C. invent D. tuch
43. A. beautiful B. painful C. jyful D. successful
44. A. purpse B. reasn C. prblem D. decisin
45. A. serius B. relaxing C. cmfrtable D. unhealthy
46. A. carried B. lst C. missed D. faced
47. A. dubted B. believed C. admired D. regretted
48. A. difficult B. nervus C. dangerus D. energetic
49. A. strnger B. prer C. busier D. faster
50. A. valuable B. anxius C. famus D. return
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
51. In which sectin f the newspaper can we read the news?
A. Culture B. Envirnment C. Transprtatin D. Technlgy
52. What des it mean that the Spring Festival has becme a wrld intangible cultural heritage?
A. UNESCO is a fair rganizatin.
B. Children’s favrite is Spring Festival.
C. Spring Festival is widely welcmed by the wrld.
D. Chinese peple shuld get tgether n Spring Festival.
53. What is Myensinrye event abut?
A. Great ideas f Cnfucians. B. A public lessn n smartphnes.
C. An activity fr new students. D. A talent shw abut traditinal clthes.
54. What can we see during the Dickens Festival?
A. Shakespeare’s famus plays. B. Chinese dragn dance perfrmance.
C. Abut 100, 000 peple frm China, D. The characters frm Dickens’ bks.
55. What d the abve pictures relate t?
A. Chinese traditins. B. Special clthes.
C. Wnderful educatin. D. Mdern technlgy.
B
In ur daily lives, we ften fllw the same rutines (日常作息): getting up, ging t schl r wrk, eating, and ging t bed. Sunds familiar? But what if smething unusual r unexpected happens? That’s what I experienced ne evening in April 2024 n my way hme frm wrk.
As I was riding my bike hme in the evening, I saw a big dirty dg with range and white fur. It lked sad and lst, simply sitting in the middle f the rad by a pedestrian crssing (入行横道). It seemed unsure f what t d as it lay dwn and stared at the passing traffic. Nbdy seemed t mind the dg either, nly passing him by at a distance.
At first, I als crssed ver t the ther side, hping that smebdy else wuld care fr the dg. But, realizing that the dg might suddenly get up and walk int traffic, I decided I must d smething t help the dg.
★ I saw my pprtunity. I used my bike t guide the dg t a street crner, blcking
the way t keep it safe frm passing cars. Slwly but surely, I was able t encurage the dg t keep walking until finally, we bth made it t the sidewalk. I messaged a dg shelter (收容所) grup t let them knw abut the dg’s whereabuts. Yet, by the time I turned t it again, the dg was gne.
Smetimes we dn’t knw what we will find r see in ur daily lives. Still, what matters is hw we react t them. Despite (尽管) hw shy I nrmally am in these situatins, I am glad I fund the curage t help a dg in need, even if just fr a mment.
56. What unusual event did the writer experience n his way hme?
A. Falling ff his bike unexpectedly. B. Seeing a guide dg fr the first time.
C. Giving a hand at a traffic accident. D. Helping a hmeless dg n the rad.
57. Hw did the writer react at the first sight f the dg?
A. He passed it withut minding much. B. He-tried t guide the dg t safety.
C. He called a dg shelter fr help at nce. D. He watched the dg crssing the rad.
58. Why did the writer use his bike t blck the way?
A. T stp cars getting t clse. B. T warn passers-by nt t get clse.
C. T hld the dg fr the light change. D. T prevent the dg frm walking away.
59. Which sentence f the fllwing can be put int ★ ?
A. T stp the cars behind B. When the light changed
C. Suddenly, my bike was brken D. Befre the dg std up
60. What des the writer want t tell us with his experience?
A. Be calm fr unexpected events. B. It takes curage t help animals.
C. Take actin even if thers d nt. D. Be brave t lk fr help in hard times.
C
As a child, I didn’t like Peking Opera. In my eyes, it was bring. The actrs sang and spke in strange ways and their clthes lked “ancient.” That was until last year, when I saw a vide f an actress singing pp sngs in a Peking Opera style. I started thinking the traditinal art frm was really cl.
My stry might help explain why the new C-drama Lve Game in Eastern Fantasy (《永夜星河》) is s ppular amng yung peple, bth at hme and abrad. Althugh the shw is set in ancient times, it develps in a game-like way. The female lead Ling Miamia finds herself inside a fantasy nvel. T get back t the real wrld, she must finish many tasks. When I first saw her struck by lightning (被雷击中) ---and the wrds “The End” appear n the screen---I laughed ut lud. It felt like I was playing a game myself!
The drama als uses mdern language. Ling smetimes says things like “What? Did I break the law? “ r “Hw much did these special effects (特效) cst? “ These wrds fit the character and add fun t the shw.
This shw is an example f pp culture’s rle in spreading Chinese culture. The Glbal Times ( 《环球时报》) calls nline nvels, nline dramas and nline games the “three carriages (三驾马车)” f this effrt. The key is t interest yung peple first. If they are curius (好奇) , they will want t learn mre. Nw, peple are talking abut the traditinal skills behind the prps (道具) in Lve Game in Eastern Fantasy. They are als learning mre abut Chinese flk stries like Shanhaijing because f the shw. This is the pwer f pp culture.
61. What changed the writer’s view abut Peking Opera?
A. The ways f actrs sang and spke.
B. The ancient clthes f the perfrmers.
C. A cl vide f an actress singing pp sngs.
D. A C-drama named Lve Game in Eastern Fantasy.
62. Why des the writer begin the article with his Peking Opera stry?
A. T tell readers the traditinal art frm was really cl.
B. T encurage the readers t enjy mre Peking Operas.
C. T share his real pinins abut pp culture with readers.
D. T shw hw pp culture helped make him interested in Peking Opera.
63. What is the special f Lve Game in Eastern Fantasy, accrding t the writer?
A. The special effects cst t much.
B. The shw develps in a game-like way.
C. The stries behind the prps are s cl.
D. The animals in Shanhaijing have cme back t life.
64. The shw’s use f mdern language helps t ____________.
A. interest yung pepleB. learn much culture frm it
C. make the lines mre beautifulD. understand traditinal culture easier
65. Which f the fllwing culd be the best title f the passage?
A. The Pwer f Pp Culture B. Three Carriages f Pp Culture
C. Peking Opera’s New Style D. A Ppular C-drama Abut Flk Stries
第II 卷 (非选择题 共 40 分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5 小题，每小题 2分，满分 10分)
阅读下面短文，用方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使短文在结构、语意和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)
missing / set up / ppular / wrries / shwed up / discussed / allw
Shpping with yur dg can be fun. But what if the stre desn’t ____________ (66) furry friends? A dg parking lt might cme in handy (派上用场) (Or can we just call it a “barking lt”? )
In Shanghai’s Xuhui district, dg parking has been ____________ (67) near a shpping mall. This is t allw pet wners t shp mre freely.
The dg parking space has an apple-shaped structure (结构) with three bne-shaped handles (把手). Owners can tie their pets t the handles fr a mment while shpping.
The pet parking area was heatedly ____________ (68) nline. Sme peple praised Shanghai fr its pet-friendly envirnment. Others, hwever, had ____________ (69). They said that dgs might fight with each ther. There’s als the risk f dgs ging ____________ (70). A strekeeper explained that staff in the shp wuld help lk after pets if needed.
六、综合填空 (共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
A few years ag, I went t Sa Paul fr the birthday f my friend, Lincln. The days there were a ____________ (71) (wnder) experience f Brazilian hspitality (好客). It was like nthing I’d ever ____________ (72) (feel) befre.
The night befre we went t the Ri Carnival, I went t Ppeyes fr sme fried chicken. The guy at the cunter (收银台) nly spke Prtuguese and I didn’t quite understand him. A middle-aged man nticed my ____________ (73) (difficult) and tried t help me, thugh he nly spke Prtuguese, t. Then, a yunger guy, Jnathan, als came t help. He spke English. We ended up ____________ (74) (talk) and eating tgether. Sn, a grup f yung peple came t sit next t us. We struck up a friendship right away. After a while, we even went t a street party nearby tgether.
____________ (75) the trip, I als made friends with sme f Lincln’s friends. Henrique and Camila invited me ____________ (76) (stay) with them fr a weekend. They tk me arund the neighbrhd ____________ (77) intrduced me t mre f their friends. Luis, a lver f cking, even arranged a ramen (拉面) night fr me. It was crazy. Can yu imagine ____________ (78) Brazilian making ramen at hme?
Brazilians have a way f making yu feel at hme. They include yu in their plans even if they have nly knwn yu fr ten minutes. They share their ____________ (79) (life) with yu, and really want t knw abut yu. I was lucky t have fund the ____________ (80) (kind) suls in the wrld.
七、书面表达 (共1大题，满分20分)
“All wrk and n play makes Jack a dull by.”这句话表达了劳逸结合、张弛有度才能提升工作或学习的效率。请根据以下内容提示，用英文谈谈你如何在学习之余放松身心，做到劳逸结合，你还希望得到父母或老师怎样的理解与支持，
内容提示：
What d yu d t relax when yu finish yur hmewrk?
D yu think yu have a balanced lifestyle between study and play?
What d yu think yu shuld be allwed t d t have a meaningful relaxatin?
Smething mre abut it.
注意：文中不得透露个人真实信息；篇幅 100 词左右；开头已给出，不计入总词数。
As I entered the third year f junir high, I realized it’s imprtant t have a balanced lifestyle. ___________
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参考答案
一、听力测试 (每小题1分，满分25分)
1-5. ACBAC 6-10. CABAB 11-15. CABAC 16-20. CBAAC21-25. BCCBB
二、选择填空 (本题共10分，每小题1分)
26-30. DBCDA 31-35. BADBC
三、完形填空 (本题共15分，每小题1分)
36-40. ADABC41-45. ADBCA46-50. DBCAD
四、阅读理解 (本题共30分，每小题2分)
51-55. ACCDB56-60. DAABC 61-65. CDBAA
五、词与短语选择填空 (本题共10分，每小题2分)
66. allw 67. set up 68. discussed 69. wrries 70. missing
六、综合填空 (本题共 10 分，每小题 1 分)
71. wnderful 72. felt 73. difficulty 74. talking 75. During
76. t stay 77. and 78. a 79. lives 80. kindest
七、书面表达 (本大题 20 分)
As I entered the third year f junir high, I realized it’s imprtant t have a balanced lifestyle. Althugh I have t spend mre time n schlwrk as the subjects get harder, I still need t play and relax t keep active and energetic after I finish my hmewrk. I lve listening t music that I can sing alng with. Als, ding sprts like playing basketball can make me happier and healthier. (On weekends 1 prefer t watch a cmedy with my friends when I’m tired frm hard wrk r sad fr drpping scres. ) After meaningful relaxatin, I can always feel less tired and fcus mre attentin n my studies. S I try t balance my study and play, but smetimes I need t be understd by my parents and teachers. I think I shuld be allwed t manage my wn life-I’m nt a child after all.
阅卷时请大家执行中考标准！
档次 得分 评卷维度标准
内容切题，准确表达观点；结构合理，表意流畅；无人称、时态问题，基第五档 17~20分 本无句式和拼写等错误：书写整洁、整齐、清晰。这一档需要关注
丰富性、多样性、文学性。
内容切题，能够表达观点；结构完整，表意清晰；无人称、时态问题，少第四档 13~16分 量句式和拼写等错误：书写整洁、整齐、清晰。
内容相关，尝试表达观点：结构缺失，表意模糊：有人称、时态问题，句第三档 9~12 分 式和拼写错误影响表意；书写不太规范。
第二档 5~8 分 内容相关，试图用句子表意；各个维度都有问题，书写不规范。
有少量相关词汇或抄写内容提示问题得4分。抄写无关内容可评为第一档 0～4 分 零分。
On Dec 4, UNESCO made China’s Spring Festival a wrld intangible cultural heritage (非遗). As China’s ldest and mst imprtant traditinal festival, Spring Festival helps bring the Chinese peple tgether and makes them feel prud f their wn culture, UNESCO said. The festival is als lved by ther cuntries. Abut ne in every five peple arund the wrld celebrates the festival.
New students at Sungkyunkwan University (成均馆大学) in Ṣeul Suth Krea, wear traditinal clthes and take part in the Myensinrye event. It is a yearly event t welcme new students. The university was built in 1398 t teach peple abut Cnfucian (儒家的) ideas. Nw, the university still has a special department fr teaching Cnfucian ideas. The university is ne f the best
On Dec 14, Deventer in the Netherlands (荷兰) became a magical wrld! Peple here celebrated the Dickens (狄更斯) Festival. Mre than 950 peple wre special clthes t take part in it. They brught the characters frm Charles Dickens’ bks t life. This festival let mre peple meet the characters frm his bks, such as Oliver Twist and Scrge. It drew abut 100, 000 peple frm arund the wrld.