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    河南省商开大联考2021-2022学年高二上学期期中考试英语含答案

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    这是一份河南省商开大联考2021-2022学年高二上学期期中考试英语含答案,共14页。试卷主要包含了本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分,答题前,考生务必用直径0,本卷命题范围等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    商开大联考2021-2022学年上学期期中考试

    高二英语

    考生注意:

    1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分,考试时间120分钟。

    2.答题前,考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。

    3.考生作答时,请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效,在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效

    4.本卷命题范围:北师大版模块五。

    第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30)

    第一节(5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5)

    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的ABC三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

    1. What will the woman do this afternoon?

    A. Shop with Alice.     B. Go for a walk.      C. Wash her clothes.

    2. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

    A. Classmates.     B. Boss and secretary.     C. Teacher and student.

    3. What type of books did the man like as a teenager?

    A. Love stories.     B. Detective stories.     C. Science fiction.

    4. What does the man suggest the woman do?

    A. Find a new player.     B. Join in a basketball game.     C. Watch the game silently.

    5. What is bothering the man?

    A. The loud music.     B. The flying birds.     C. The woman's talk.

    第二节(15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5)

    听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的ABC三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

    听第6段材料,回答第67题。

    6. What does the man think of the price of the special delivery?

    A. A little high.     B. Pretty low.     C. Quite reasonable.

    7. How many envelopes does the man need?

    A. Two.      B. Three.      C. Ten.

    听第7段材料,回答第89题。

    8. What can we know about the speakers?

    A. They like the lecture very much.

    B. They've seen each other before.

    C. They are from different schools.

    9. Why did the man change his school?

    A. He disliked Hawaii. B. Helen advised him to. C. His family moved here.

    听第8段材料,回答第1012题。

    10. Where does the conversation take place?

    A. On the phone.     B. In an office.     C. In a gym.

    11. What is Michael busy with recently?

    A. A birthday celebration.     B. School work and activities.     C. Part-time work.

    12. How does Michael feel about his application for the University of Southern California?

    A. Confident.     B. Disappointed.     C. Unsure.

    听第9段材料,回答第1316题。

    13. How long did the speakers stay at the zoo last time?

    A. For four hours.     B. For six hours.     C. For eight hours.

    14. Who is Lisa?

    A. The speakers' daughter.     B. The speakers' pet.     C. The speakers' travel guide.

    15. Where will the speakers probably have lunch today?

    A. At home.     B. At the zoo.     C. At a restaurant.

    16. What do the speakers plan to do at the zoo?

    A. Give food to elephants.     B. Plant seeds.     C. Feed snakes with eggs.

    听第10段材料,回答第1720题。

    17. Where is the talk given?

    A. At a food festiva1.     B. At an opening of a club.     C. At a birthday party

    18. Why does the speaker give a special welcome to Joan Miller?

    A. To thank her for her donation.

    B. To invite her to join the club.

    C. To wish her a happy birthday.

    19. What is an aim of the club?

    A. To arrange birthday parties.

    B. To provide con1panionship.

    C. To teach seniors how to cook.

    20. What are the listeners encouraged to dc after lunch?

    A. Do some cleaning.     B. Donate some food.     C. Chat with each other.

    第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40)

    第一节(15小题;每小题2分,满分30)

    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的ABCD四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

    A

    Four Recommended Books for Teens

    You Should See Me in a Crown by Leah Johnson

    Shy and awkward, Liz Light can't wait to move out of her hometown and achieve her goals of playing in her dream band and someday becoming a doctor. However, she lacks money, so she decides to run for prom queen(舞会皇后)with hopes of winning a scholarship. Meeting Mack, a new student, is like a light for Liz, who is often laughed at by her classmates.

    Price: $ 10.11

    Tithe by Holly Black

    Kaye's world is turned upside down when she discovers that the faerie(仙境)world is real. She finds herself between two of their queens that are looking to do whatever it takes to make sure their followers survive this war that they're in. Holly Black creates a world that will leave readers hungry for more. Read the entire Folk of Air series to follow along Kaye's journey.

    Price: , now $ 12.89

    A Wrinkle in Time by Madeleine L' Engle

    This story is all about high school girl Meg Murry who's trying to find and bring her dad back home. In the first book of a four-book series, Meg meets a stranger one night who informs her of something that will help her travel through dimensions(空间). Along with her brother Charles and her friend Calvin, they travel to find out what exactly happened to Mr. Murry and take him back to their reality.

    Price: , now $ 5.38

    The Sisterhood of the Traveling Pants series by Ann Brashares

    This coming-of-age series follows a group of childhood best friends all the way from high school to college. The girls share their ups and downs as they turn from teenagers into adults, recording it all on a pair of pants that magically fit each girl perfectly.

    Price: , now $ 4.99

    21. What is Liz Light's dream job?

    A. A designer.     B. A doctor.     C. A dancer.      D. A teacher.

    22. Whose book is about a girl's search for her father?

    A. Leah Johnson's.     B. Holly Black's.     C. Madeleine L'Engle's.     D. Ann Brashares's.

    23. Which book is the cheapest now?

    A. Tithe.                          B. A Wrinkle in Time.

    C. You Should See Me in a Crown.     D. The Sisterhood of the Traveling Pants series.

    B

    Since being introduced to chess at the age of six, Tanitoluwa "Tani" Adewumi has had one goal. He wants to become the world's youngest-ever Grandmaster-the highest title a chess player can achieve. The record is currently held by Russian chess player Alexandrovich Karjakin, who won the title in 2002 at the age of 12.

    To work for his goal, the gifted chess player practiced for up to 11 hours every day after school. On May 1, 2021, the now 10-year-old Tani became the newest national chess master of the United States. The title, awarded by the United States Chess Federation(USCF), requires players to get a rating of between 2200 to 2400. Tani achieved a rating of 2223 by defeating two chess experts, a master, and an international master. Tani said the secret to his success was thinking of his plays ahead of time.

    The now fifth-grader first knew and fell in love with chess in 2017 after being exposed to the basics by a part-time teacher at school in Manhattan, New York. However, his mother, Oluwatoyin, didn't let him join the school's chess club due to the travel and chess competition costs. The family of four, who were living in a homeless shelter, did not have extra money to spare. When Oluwatoyin explained the family's situation to the chess club's instructor, Russell Makofsky, he instantly cancelled all costs for the young boy.

    Tani did not disappoint those who supported him. Over less than a year after joining the club, he had garnered seven trophies(奖杯)and was ranked 27 in his age category. In 2019, the then eight-year-old, who was still living in a homeless shelter, made national headlines when he defeated 73 competitors to win the New York State Scholastic Chess K-3 Championship. His amazing story caught much attention and a GoFundMe campaign, set up by Makofsky, helped raise enough money for Tani and his family to move into a new home.

    24. What can we learn from paragraph 2?

    A. Tani's efforts paid off.          B. Tani did badly at school.

    C. Tani hardly practiced chess.     D. Tani's thoughts were simple.

    25. Who first introduced Tani to chess?

    A. His mother.               B. His teacher.

    C. Alexandrovich Karjakin.     D. Russell Makofsky.

    26. Why did Tani's mother disagree to let him join the chess club?

    A. The family was too poor to cover the costs.    B. The competition in the club was too fierce.

    C. She was afraid that he was not independent.    D. She wanted him to concentrate on his study.

    27. What does the underlined word "garnered" in the last paragraph probably mean?

    A. Assessed.     B. Designed.     C. Gained.     D. Missed.

    C

    Widely known as the world's first national park, Yellowstone National Park was built on March 1, 1872. Covering 3, 472 square miles, Yellowstone runs through Wyoming and into Montana and Idaho, bringing with it deep canyons, rivers, forests, hot springs, and so on. The wonder of the world attracts millions of visitors each year because of its fantastic facts.

    The park has a lake named Yellowstone Lake, which is situated at 7, 733 feet above sea level, making it the largest high-elevation lake in all of North America. The lake is about 20 miles long and 14 miles wide, with about 141 miles of shoreline. Each winter, Yellowstone Lake is completely covered with two-foot-thick ice.

    Aside from its unique lake, there are also 290 waterfalls found throughout the park, including the famous Yellowstone River Upper and Lower Falls, which end up in an area known as the "Grand Canyon of the Yellowstone River". Visitors can view the falls from several different hiking trails(远足路径)and walkways.

    With over 300 campsites and more than 900 miles of hiking trails inside the park-most of which are managed as wilderness areas-Yellowstone is the perfect destination for the most adventurous kind of outdoor enthusiast. It isn't all difficult wilderness hiking, however, since the park also offers plenty of choices for shorter-day hikes on well-managed trails. There are even paved hikes that are wheelchair-accessible.

    Also, you may see different kinds of animal:; along your hike in the park. Not only are there at least 67 species of mammals(哺乳动物)living in Yellowstone National Park, there are also approximately 300 species of bird and 16 species of fish. There're at least two threatened species. The Canada lynx(猞猁)was listed as threatened in 2000, and parts of Yellowstone are still considered as the animal's important natural home. They were found only 112 times in park history. What's more, in 2018, the government restored(恢复)the protection to grey bears within Yellowstone.

    28. How does the text mainly introduce Yellowstone Lake?

    A. By listing figures.           B. By making comparisons.

    C. By following space order.     D. By following time order.

    29. What in Yellowstone National Park attracts adventurous people most?

    A. Its many amazing waterfalls.          B. Its endangered animal species.

    C. Its difficult wilderness hiking trails.     D. Its wheelchair-accessible trails.

    30. What can be inferred about the wildlife in Yellowstone National Park?

    A. Most of the animals are endangered.          B. It's not easy to see the Canada lynx.

    C. There are a small number of bird species.      D. Grey bears are losing official protection.

    31. From which is the text most probably taken?

    A. A biology textbook.     B. A history book.

    C. A personal diary.       D. A travel magazine.

    D

    Children learn language at a far faster pace than adults. One explanation for this learning advantage comes not from differences between children and adults, but from the differences in the way that people talk to children and adults.

    A team of researchers developed a method to experimentally evaluate how parents use what they know about their children's language when they talk to them. They have found that parents have models of their children's language knowledge, and use these models to adjust the language they use when speaking to them.

    "We have known for years that parents talk to children differently than to other adults in a lot of ways, for example, simplifying their speech and repeating words," said Daniel Yurovsky, assistant professor in psychology at Carnegie Mellon University. "This helps young kids learn language, but we don't know whether parents change the way they talk as children are acquiring language."

    Yurovsky adds, "Adults tend to speak to children more slowly. Adults also strengthen their communication with questions to see if children have understood their speech. As the child's language fluency increases, the sentence structure and complexity(复杂性)used by adults increases."

    Yurovsky and his team wanted to understand exactly how parents adjusted their interactions to match their child's speech development. The team developed a game where parents helped their children to pick a certain animal from a set of three. Half of the animals in the matching game were animals children typically learn before age two, and the other half were animals that are typically learned later. The researchers asked 41 child-adult pairs to play the game. They measured the differences in how parents talked about animals they thought their children knew as compared to those they thought their children did not know.

    The researchers found that the caregiver used various techniques to introduce the unknown animal to the child. The most common approach was to use additional descriptors familiar to the child.

    32. Researchers have found parents adjust how they talk to their kids based on          .

    A. their own language level             B. the importance of the talk

    C. the closeness of their relationship      D. their kids' language knowledge

    33. Why do adults ask questions when talking to kids in Yurovsky's opinion?

    A. To draw kids' attention to the talk.       B. To measure kids' comprehension.

    C. To encourage kids to think carefully.     D. To increase the difficulty of the speech.

    34. What did the researchers do to the parents in the game?

    A. They studied their ways to describe animals.  

    B. They required them to act like some animals.

    C. They asked them to comment on kids' speech.

    D. They limited their words used to talk to kids.

    35. What can be a suitable title for the text?

    A. When Children Should Start to Learn Language

    B. What Lessons Adults Can Learn From Children

    C. How Parents Understand Children's Language

    D. Why Children Learn Language Faster Adults

    第二节(5小题;每小题2分,满分10)

    根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

    Many holidays are centered around surrounding yourself with family members and gathering in large groups, so it can be tough to enjoy your holidays all by yourself. However, spending a holiday alone can actually be more enjoyable and you might even find that you like it more.   36  

    Limit your technology use. If you're spending your holidays alone, it might be attractive to stay completely connected to your social media and email.   37   So, try turning off your phone and computer to focus on yourself throughout the day instead of others.

       38   Holidays offer you a good chance to award yourself for your hard work. Whether you go out to your favorite restaurant or cook at home, allow ;yourself to enjoy a big meal. After that, plan an outing to the movies, a museum or a park to relax. Also, giving yourself a gift is a great idea.

    Volunteer somewhere. If you live neat a shelter, reach out to see if they need help during the holidays. If you already volunteer somewhere, ask if you can come in on your day off.   39   If you volunteer somewhere and you enjoy the experience, consider volunteering more often.

    Dive into a creative project.   40   You can draw, paint or make paper cuttings-anything that makes you feel accomplished. If you need to get holiday gifts for people, you could use your crafting skills to make some for them.

    A. Treat yourself.

    B. Get a creative technology-related gift.

    C. However, a real break means limiting your technology use.

    D. There are many reasons why you should spend holidays alone.

    E. If you have a creative outlet, dive in and make something special.

    F. Giving back is what holidays are about and it probably makes you feel good.

    G. Here are a few things you can do on your own to make your holidays special.

    第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45)

    第一节(20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30)

    阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的ABCD四个选项中,选出可以填空白处的最佳选项。

    I loved my first-grade teacher, Mrs. Gross. She had such a sweet smile and was   41   to us. I wasn't sure what her   42   was at that time but she already looked very grandmotherly. Unlike some other teachers, she never   43   her students. Tome, it felt like having a second   44   as my teacher. I always remember the time I spent in her classroom the most fondly.

    One such   45   is still with me to today. We were doing subtraction(减法)math problems when Mrs. Gross walked through the classroom   46   our work. I   47   it first and lifted my head up just as Mrs. Gross walked up behind me. She looked at my work and   48   . Then she said, "Well done, Joe. You're a very   49   boy." As she walked on, she   50   touched my shoulder and I felt excitement in my heart. It felt so good to be   51   . From that moment on, I always tried my best. I always wanted to be what she   52   me to be. She awakened a   53   in me to be the best person I could be. With her good words full of love and   54   , I started down a wonderful path that I am   55   on today.

    David Whyte wrote, "People are   56   , and one good word is bread for a thousand." I think the good words Mrs. Gross gave me helped me   57   my own good words with others. I think the   58   she showed me helped me to give love to others.

    In this life we can   59   much more than we realize. Every kind word, every loving act, every helping hand is a   60   in the eyes of someone in need. So, fill your days with good words and make your life a gift of love.

    41. A. blind      B. rude      C. friendly      D. harmful

    42. A. personality      B. age.      C. appearance      D. expression

    43. A. cared for      B. worried about      C. laid off      D. shouted at

    44. A. grandmother      B. neighbor      C. assistant      D. judge

    45. A. emergency      B. accident      C. memory      D. change

    46. A. simplifying      B. checking      C. reducing      D. improving

    47. A. acquired      B. ignored      C. inspected      D. finished

    48. A. smiled      B. shook      C. sighed      D. screamed

    49. A. brave      B. modest      C. smart      D. honest

    50. A. hesitantly      B. gently      C. casually      D. impatiently

    51. A. envied      B. questioned      C. followed      D. appreciated

    52. A. considered      B. paid      C. troubled      D. forced

    53. A. plan      B. desire      C. permission      D. chance

    54. A. generosity      B. defence      C. competition      D. encouragement

    55. A. still      B. never      C. sometimes      D. seldom

    56. A. curious      B. devoted      C. hungry      D. strong

    57. A. compare      B. share      C. equip      D. combine

    58. A. understanding      B. respect      C. closeness      D. kindness

    59. A. give      B. buy      C. lose      D. lack

    60. A. goal      B. victory      C. treasure      D. choice

    第二节(10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15)

    阅读下面短文,在空白处填1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

    There're many life lessons that are presented to us every day. If we take the time to learn from them, they can chart a positive course for us. Here are three of the lessons I   46   (learn) so far in my life.

    Live in the present. Focusing too much on the harm   62   (do) to us in the past, or trying to plan for too many   63   (possibility) in the future, can cause us to miss out on the present. Missing what is going on right in front of us can prevent us from the happiness or   64   (satisfy) the present can offer us.

    Overcome any obstacles(障碍)in the way. When facing obstacles, we have to decide whether we let them stop us completely   65   we create a new course. Obstacles can easily become new opportunities. We just have to make small adjustments, and sometimes   66   (slight) change our goals.

    Get up when we fail. Thomas Edison once said, "Many of life's failures are people who don't realize how close they were   67   success when they gave up." Sometimes it's the act of getting up when we fall that   68   (help) us cross the finish line. It can be rethinking a piece of the puzzle or simply   69   (continue) on when the end feels so far away. Pushing through it to the end might be   70   makes a difference.

    第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35)

    第一节 短文改错(10小题;每小题1分,满分1))

    假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

    增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(),并在其下面写出该加的词。

    删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

    修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

    注意:

    1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

    2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

    I'm an only child and I was happy as the young child. I was very luckily then. I had fourteen cousins and they lived in the same town which I grew up until I was ten. We often played and studied together. However after my family move away from there, I began to find it difficult to being an only child. When I was a teenager, I was on my own and I had nobody to compare note with or to prepare the exams with. I often felt upset and boring. Although I had all of my parents' attention, I didn't always want them. How I wish I could have had a sister or brother!

    第二节 书面表达(满分25)

    假定你是李华,是你校英文报的一名编辑,你报计划出版一期关于春节的专刊。请你给校英文报的主要负责人Peter写一封邮件,申请负责这次的专刊。内容包括:

    1.表明意图;

    2.给出理由;

    3.表达期望。

    注意:

    1.词数100左右;

    2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。

    参考词汇:专刊special issue

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

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