24年七英入学分班卷

这是一份24年七英入学分班卷，共13页。试卷主要包含了本试卷分第Ⅰ卷两部分，Wh is Gina?等内容，欢迎下载使用。
（考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：120分）
注意事项：
1．本试卷分第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答第Ⅰ卷时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。
3．回答第Ⅱ卷时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第Ⅰ卷（选择题，共80分）
听力测试（共25分）
第一节（共4小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面4个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1．A．Yes, it is. B．This is my bk. C．N, they aren’t.
2．A．He’s my brther. B．She is my cusin. C．They’re my sisters.
3．A．Nice t meet yu, t. B．Hell. C．Gdbye.
4．A．Yes, it is. B．N, it isn’t. C．N, they aren’t.
第二节（共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分）
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
5．What’s Linda’s mther’s jb?
A．A dctr.B．A teacher.C．A plicewman.
6．Wh is Gina?
A．Eric’s aunt.B．Eric’s sister.C．Eric’s cusin.
7．Hw many red apples are there?
A．4.B．6.C．10.
8．Where are the English bks?
A．On the desk.B．Under the schlbag.C．In the bkcase.
9．What are they talking abut?
A．The bike.B．The mdel plane.C．The baseball.
10．Wh has a yellw bag?
A．Bill.B．Dale.C．Peter.
11．What’s the by’s family name?
A．Smith.B．Dale.C．Green.
12．What clr is Helen’s quilt?
A．It’s blue.B．It’s range.C．It’s brwn.
第三节（共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分）
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答下列13-15小题。
13．Wh’s Jhn’s mther?
A．Linda.B．Mary.C．Helen.
14．Wh is Cindy?
A．Jhn’s sister.B．Jhn’s mther.C．Jhn’s cusin.
15．Hw ld is Cindy?
A．Eleven.B．Twelve.C．Thirteen.
听下面一段对话，回答下列16-18小题。
16．What is the by’s（男孩） name?
A．Anthny.B．Andrew.C．Alstn.
17．What schl is the by in?
A．N. 3 Middle Schl.B．N. 4 Middle Schl.C．N. 5 Middle Schl.
18．Wh is Ms. Smith?
A．Nancy’s mm.B．Nancy’s aunt.C．Nancy’s teacher.
听下面一段对话，回答下列19-22小题。
19．What are in the bkcase?
A．Anna’s bks and tapes. B．Anna’s tapes and dictinaries. C．Anna’s bks and dictinaries.
20．What is n the sfa?
A．Anna’s mdel plane.B．Anna’s tape player.C．Sally’s tape player.
21．Wh is Sally?
A．Anna’s friend.B．Anna’s cusin.C．Anna’s sister.
22．Where is Sally’s pencil bx?
A．On the sfa.B．On the table.C．Under the table.
听下面一段独白，回答下列23-25小题。
23．Where is Amy frm?
A．England.B．Canada.C．China.
24．Hw tall is Amy?
A．1.55 meters (米).B．1.63 meters.C．1.65 meters.
25．What’s her favurite fd (食物)?
A．Pizza.B．Bread.C．Hamburgers.
二、选择填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26．—Let’s meet at 9:30 tmrrw mrning.
—OK. ________
A．Thanks s much.B．See yu then.
C．Hw’s it ging?D．I’d lve t.
27．—______
—Yes, please. I want a yellw hat.
A．Have a gd day!B．Can I help yu?
C．Welcme t ur stre!D．What d yu like?
28．—The red shrts are nly tw dllars.
—________
A．Hw much are they?B．That sunds fun.
C．Srry, I dn’t.D．OK, I’ll take them.
29．—What ________ d yu like?
—I like tennis.
A．clrB．sprtC．numberD．card
30．—What des this stre ________?
—Fruits. Yu can ________ apples, ranges, pears and s n.
A．sell, saleB．buy, sellC．sale, buyD．sell, buy
31．— What is Le ding nw?
— He ________. It’s gd fr his health.
A．is playing cmputerB．washing clthesC．is exercisingD．swimming
32．—Is the iPad ________?
—N, it’s nt ________. It’s my brther’s.
A．yurs; mineB．yurs; myC．yur, mineD．yur; my
33．—The shirt is t shrt fr me.
—Well, we have a ________ ne.
A．blackB．ldC．lngD．nice
34．—What time d yu ________?
—At abut 5:30. I like running in the mrning.
A．get upB．g t bedC．eat dinnerD．g hme
35．—________ d yu like animals?
—________ they are cute.
A．Why; BecauseB．Why; SC．What; BecauseD．What; S
三、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Hell, everyne! My 36 is Ed Smith. I am 37 English by. I’m in Class One, Grade Six. I like ball games very much. They are 38 . I play 39 games every day. I can play baseball and vlleyball. But I can’t play basketball. Basketball is 40 fr me.
Lk! This is a picture 41 my classrm. It’s big 42 clean. It is very nice. Yu can see a teacher’s desk, twenty desks and twenty 43 in the picture. Yu can als see a teacher, 44 girls and a by in the classrm.
The 45 is Mr. Miller. 46 is my English teacher. We all like 47 very much. The 48 are Mary and Jenny. The by is Rbert. They are 49 gd friends. We are in the 50 class.
36．A．nameB．ntebkC．bkD．kite
37．A．aB．anC．theD．/
38．A．bringB．shrtC．interestingD．lng
39．A．ballB．cmputerC．cardD．star
40．A．difficultB．easyC．greatD．relaxing
41．A．nB．fC．inD．with
42．A．rB．sC．butD．and
43．A．chairsB．applesC．planesD．rings
44．A．neB．twC．threeD．fur
45．A．byB．friendC．teacherD．classmate
46．A．ThisB．ThatC．HeD．She
47．A．meB．themC．yuD．him
48．A．wmenB．cusinsC．brthersD．girls
49．A．yurB．hisC．myD．her
50．A．tidyB．sameC．healthyD．bring
四、阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
51．Yu shuld pay ________ fr 5 bazi with meat.
A．¥6B．¥7.5C．¥10D．¥12.5
52．________ is the cheapest (最便宜的) fried rice.
A．Egg fried riceB．Vegetable fried rice
C．Chicken fried riceD．Beef fried rice
53．If yu have 3 yuan, yu can rder (点餐) ________.
A．range juiceB．milkC．waterD．apple juice
54．We can’t eat in the restaurant at ________.
A．11: 00B．13: 00C．14: 00D．17: 00
55．What d we knw abut the restaurant?
A．Its telephne number is 8920-5739.B．We can have breakfast there.
C．We can have fish there.D．It’s n Grey Rad.
B
Hell, everyne, I’m May. Just like yu, I am a thirteen-year-ld schlgirl. I study in a middle schl. And I ften try t imagine(想象) what my life will be like. Mst f the time, I picture myself traveling!
I live in a beautiful city near the sea in Shandng. Smetimes I walk t the sea t watch large ships cme and g. I want t knw where the ships are ging and what the places will lk like.
This makes me want t learn abut the utside wrld! I cllect(收集) pictures abut freign(外国的) cuntries. I als take ntes frm TV shws and travel bks.
But I’d like t g t visit the cuntries fr myself. Hw? T tell a secret (秘密), I hpe t be a travel writer. I think I’ll have a lt f things t write after every trip!
56．May ________.
A．lives in ShanghaiB．studies wellC．is a schlgirlD．is friendly
57．May ften thinks abut ________.
A．herselfB．her parents
C．her English studyD．her future life
58．Smetimes May watches large ships and wants t knw ________.
A．where the ships are gingB．what the travel bks are abut
C．hw the ships cme and gD．what the places in Shandng will lk like
59．T learn abut the utside wrld, May ________.
A．lives in a city near the sea
B．watches TV shws abut Shandng
C．travels t many freign cuntries
D．cllects pictures and takes ntes frm TV shws and travel bks
60．Which f the fllwing is NOT TRUE accrding t the passage?
A．May wants t be a writer.
B．May wants t travel t many places in the wrld.
C．May has written a lt f things abut her trips t freign cuntries.
D．May wants t g n a trip by herself.
C
Wrld Health Days is n April 7 every year. We have this day t help peple pay attentin t (注意) their bdies. D yu want t knw hw t be healthy? Here are sme gd ideas.
●We need t be happy. Being happy can make us healthy, s remember t smile (微笑) ften.
● We need t ▲ . Ding sprts is gd fr ur health. S, we need t g ut with friends t play sccer, basketball, t. Smetimes yu can’t g ut because f the bad weather. Yu can play yur favrite music and dance t the music.
●We need t have a gd eating habit. T be healthy, we can have many bananas, apples, “An apple a day keeps the dctr (医生) away. “But nw many students like eating fast fd like hamburgers and French fries. They are bad fr yur health. Sme students think juice is delicius and gd. In fact, water is the best drink fr yu because juice is t sweet and it can make yu fatter (更胖的), just like chclate.
S d yu eat well? Let’s see what sme students say.
61．When is Wrld Health Day?
A．On March 8th.B．On April 7th.C．On May 1st.D．On June 7th.
62．What’s the best (最佳) t fill in the blank “ ▲ “?
A．play ball gamesB．g utC．d sprtsD．play with friends
63．What are healthy fds?
A．Bananas and chclate.B．Vegetables and hamburgers.
C．Juice and French fries.D．Fruit and vegetables.
64．“An apple a day keeps the dctr away.” means (意思是)________.
A．the dctr ges away when he sees an apple
B．the dctr runs away when yu give him an apple
C．yu eat an apple every day and yu can be healthy
D．give the dctr an apple a day and yu can be healthy
65．Which sentence is right (正确的) abut the fur students?
A．Tny desn’t like vegetables. B．Cc likes milk nly n Saturday (周六).
C．Cici likes vegetables, but desn’t like fruit. D．Ben’s fd is nt healthy.
第II卷 （非选择题 共40分）
五、词与短语填空（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
仔细阅读下面短文，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构、句义和逻辑上正确。（提示：选项中有两个是多余的）
Rita is a nice girl. She has an interesting 66 . She wrks at a radi statin. She is busy but happy every day. In the mrning she gets up early. First she helps her mther 67 breakfast. Then she brushes her teeth and eats breakfast. 68 that she ges t wrk. Rita is 69 late fr wrk. She likes her jb. And she is gd 70 her wrkmates (同事) at the radi statin. Rita likes t g hme early and have dinner with her parents.
六、阅读理解填词（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
Hell! My name is Tm. I lve weekends. I always get up late n 71 (weekend). I get 72 (dress) at abut 8: 00. Then I take a shwer and brush my 73 (tth). 74 breakfast, I nly have 75 egg. But I have a big lunch. My mm 76 (make) it fr me. It tastes gd. I like t exercise in the afternn. I usually play sccer. 77 my best friend Li Ming desn’t like weekends. He 78 (have) a part-time(兼职) jb in a statin. He des sme cleaning at the statin. He always wrks n weekends. He never has time t play with us. He usually gets hme frm wrk at 10: 00. After 79 (take) a shwer, he ges 80 bed.
七、书面表达（共1大题，满分20分）
每个人都有朋友。假如Sam是你最好的朋友，请根据表格信息，给同学们介绍一下你的好朋友Sam。
要求：
1. 书写认真规范，语句通顺，表达正确，可适当发挥，以使行文连贯；
2. 不少于70词，开头已给出，不计入总词数；
3. 文中不得出现自己的真实校名和人名。
My best friend
Gd mrning, everyne!
Tday I’d like t tell yu smething abut my best friend, Sam. ____________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
英语·答案及评分标准
五、词与短语填空（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
66．jb 67．make 68．After 69．never 70．with
六、阅读理解填词（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
weekends 72．dressed 73．teeth 74．Fr 75．an
76．makes 77．But 78．has 79．taking 80．t
七、书面表达（共1大题，满分20分）
My best friend
Gd mrning, everyne!
Tday I’d like t tell yu smething abut my best friend, Sam. His birthday is n August 3rd. His favrite subjects are math and English, because they’re interesting and useful. He lves music and he is gd at playing chess. S he wants t jin the schl chess club.
He ges t schl frm Mnday t Friday. He ften gets up and gets dressed at 6:00 a.m. He brushes his teeth at 6:10. At 6:20 he eats breakfast at hme. After that he walks t schl at 6:35. It takes him ten minutes t get t schl. He likes t take a shwer in the evening. On weekends, he either listens t music r plays sccer.
应用文写作评分标准
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于60和多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差，以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
Fd in Tre Mnte’s Restaurant
Bazi
Bazi with meat (肉): 2.5 yuan
Bazi with vegetables: 1.5 yuan
Fried rice (炒饭)
Egg fried rice: 14 yuan
Chicken fried rice: 18 yuan
Beef (牛肉）fried rice: 20 yuan
Vegetable fried rice: 12 yuan
Drink
Milk: 3.5 yuan
Water: 3 yuan
Orange juice: 4.5 yuan
Apple juice: 4 yuan
Tel: 8920-5739
Address (地址): Green Rad Midtwn
Opening hurs (营业时间): 10: 30～13: 30
16: 30～21: 30
Tny: Yes, I like eating vegetables like carrts and tmates.
Cc: Yeah, I have milk every day.
Cici: Yes and n. I like fruit, but I dn’t like vegetables.
Ben: Uh, n, I like eating burgers and ice cream.
After wrk usually jb make with never
姓名
Sam
生日
8月3日
喜欢的科目
喜欢数学和英语，因为它们很有趣也很有用。
爱好和特长
热爱音乐，擅长下象棋，想参加学校象棋俱乐部。
日常生活习惯
从周一到周五：六点起床、穿衣服；六点十分刷牙；六点二十在家吃早饭；六点三十五步行去学校，通常花费十分钟到校；喜欢在晚上洗淋浴。
周末活动
周末要么听音乐要么踢足球。
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
A
B
A
C
C
C
A
A
B
B
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
C
B
C
C
B
A
B
B
A
B
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
C
C
A
C
B
B
B
D
B
D
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
C
A
C
A
A
A
B
C
A
A
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
B
D
A
B
C
C
D
D
C
B
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
D
B
C
C
A
C
D
A
D
C
61
62
63
64
65
B
C
D
C
D
档次
描述
第五档
(17～20分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
- 覆盖所有内容要点。
- 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
- 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但因尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
- 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档
(13～16分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
- 虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
- 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
- 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
- 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
(9～12分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
- 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
- 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
- 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
- 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
(5～8分)
未适当完成试题规定的任务。
- 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
- 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
- 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
- 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档
(1～4分)
未完成试题规定的任务。
- 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
- 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
- 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
- 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。