江夏、黄陂、蔡甸区2024-2025学年上学期期中七年级英语试题（word版含答案）

这是一份江夏、黄陂、蔡甸区2024-2025学年上学期期中七年级英语试题（word版含答案），共12页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，语音辨析，选择填空，完形填空，阅读理解，词与短语填空，综合填词，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分)
听下面4个问题或句子。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Micheal. B. Happy Birthday! C. Gd mrning!
2. A. It’s blue. B. A basketball. C. I’m six.
3. A. Yes, I am. B. N, I dn’t. C. N, I can’t.
4. A. My parents. B. At schl. C. Carrts.
第二节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
5. Whse bks are thse?
A. Jim’s. B. Alice’s. C. Alice and Jim’s.
6. Hw ld is Cathy?
A. 13 years ld. B. 12 years ld. C. 11 years ld.
7. What’s the girl’s last name?
A. Musk. B. Tina. C. Zhang.
8. Wh has the dg?
A. Grace. B. Teng Fei. C. Tm.
9. What clr is the ruler?
A. Purple. B. Green. C. White.
10. What is the girl’s favurite fd?
A. Beef ndles. B. Map tfu. C. Gngba chicken.
11. Which place is Peter talking abut?
A. B. C.
12. What can we infer (推断) frm the girl’s wrds?
A. They’re classmates. B. They’re friends. C. They are brther and sister.
第三节 (共 13 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 13 分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答 13~15 三个小题。
13. When d Jack and Mary meet?
A. In the mrning. B. In the afternn. C. In the evening.
14. What des Mary want t d after schl?
A. G hme. B. Have dinner. C. Play tennis.
15. What can yu learn abut Helen?
A. She is Jack’s sister. B. She is Jack’s cusin. C. She is Jack’s aunt.
听下面一段对话，回答16~18三个小题。
16. Hw many peple are there in Wendy’s family?
A. 3. B. 4. C. 5.
17. What des Wendy’s father d?
A. He is a teacher. B. He is a dctr. C. He is a wrker.
18. What des Wendy’s mther like?
A. Playing chess. B. Planting flwers. C. Ging hiking.
听下面一段对话，回答19~22四个小题。
19. What’s the schl like?
A. It lks nice. B. It’s a little small. C. It’s very ld.
20. What clr is the classrm building?
A. It’s red. B. It’s green. C. It’s grey.
21. Hw many classrms are there in the schl?
A. 14. B. 20. C. 24.
22. Which ne is right abut the girl’s schl?
A. The students can d sprts after class in the schl.
B. There is a small library in the schl.
C. The dining hall is in frnt f the classrm building.
听下面一段独白，回答 23 至 25 三个小题。
23. Where des Alan cme frm?
A. The USA. B. The UK. C. Australia.
24. What did Alan lse (丢失) ？
A. A jacket. B. A pencil bx. C. A pen.
25. What des Alan prbably think f the girl?
A. She is helpful. B. She is smart. C. She is famus.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、语音辨析 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
阅读各个小题中的每个单词，注意画线部分的读音，然后找出发音与所给的音标不同的选项。
26. /i: / A. eat B. please C. bread D. easy
27. /e/ A. yellw B. eraser C. else D. left
28. /æ/ A. table B. have C. happy D. back
29 la: / A. start B. similar C. smart D. yard
30. /u: / A. fd B. schl C. rm D. gd
三、选择填空 (共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
31. — ____________, Ella! This is my twin brther Jim.
—Hi, Jim! Nice t meet yu.
A. Hell B. Nice t see yu C. Srry D. See yu
32. —Thank yu fr helping me with my English.
— ____________.
A. N way B. Yu are welcme C. That’s right D. N thanks
33. — Mm, I’m s happy right nw. I will g t my new schl.
— ____________!
A. Excuse me B. Thank yu C. Have a gd time D. Just d it
34. —Tm, I can’t find the way t Yellw Crane Twer (黄鹤楼) . What can I d?
—Use baidu ____________ n yur phne. It can help yu a lt.
A. flag B. pencil C. picture D. map
35. — Why d peple like the game “Black Myth: Wukng”?
—Because they like ____________ the Chinese culture (文化) behind it and the amazing screen.
A. bth B. all C. sme D. each
36. — My parents dn’t want me t play cmputer games t lng.
—Yeah, they are ____________.
A. quiet B. fat C. right D. fun
37. —Srry, sir. Our restaurant (餐馆) will be full f peple at that time. Wuld yu like t ____________ yur time?
—All right.
A. spend B. cunt C. start D. change
38. —Culd yu tell me hw t ____________ this ad n the Internet?
—OK, chse the platfrm (平台) yu need first.
A. pst B. give C. take D. clean
39. —Hey, Bb! ____________ my new trusers.
—Oh, they lk great n yn.
A. Listen t B. Lk at C. Learn frm D. Laugh at
40. The saying “When I walk with w thers, they may be my teachers” tells us ____________.
A. wh is my teacher B. where can I find my teacher
C. that we can learn frm thers D. what is the teacher like
四、完形填空 (共10 小题，每小题1分，满分：10)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
Milan’s great grandmther (曾祖母) lives in a nursing hme (养老院) . The nursing hme is far away 41 hme. Milan always 42 with her n the cell phne (手机) . But in the nursing hme, many ld peple dn’t 43 a phne. And sme ld peple dn’t 44 hw t use a phne.
Milan wants t help them. S he starts a club (俱乐部)一Tech Angels 45 tw brthers. They give the ld peple phnes and teach 46 hw t use a phne. S they can start 47 with their family. They call their family and say that they make 48 friends. Milan and her friends ften help each ther and they are happy in the nursing hme. Nw sme ld peple can play phne games, take 49 and use WeChat n the phne.
The ld in the nursing hme are amazed and 50 . They thank the bys a lt. Seeing the ld happy, Milan and his brthers are als very happy. These bys really d a big gd thing!
41. A. t B. in C. frm D. at
42. A. exercises B. talks C. lives D. wrks
43. A. have B. put C. like D. circle
44. A. ask B. think C. knw D. answer
45. A. by B. abut C. fr D. with
46. A. them B. their C. they D. theirs
47. A. sprts B. lessns C. infrmatin D. cnversatins
48. A. any B. many C. much D. few
49. A. clrs B. numbers C. phts D. keys
50. A. special B. happy C. smart D. funny
五、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。
A
As yu knw, students are ften very busy at schl. But when they are free, where are their favrite places t g? Three freign students are talking abut it n the Internet.
51. We can prbably find these messages (信息)
A. In a stry bk B. In a TV shw C. On Facebk D. In a dictinary
52. What des Daisy like?
A. Reading bks. B. Playing tennis.
C. Eating Beijing rast duck. D. Ging shpping.
53. What grade are these three students prbably (很可能) in?
A. Grade 3. B. Grade 8. C. Grade 10. D. Grade 12.
54. What d we knw abut Ruby?
A. She always buys clthes. B. She lves shpping with her family.
C. She has fun ging shpping. D. Her favrite place is the City Park.
55. The passage mainly talks abut three students ____________.
A. favrite sprts B. favrite bks C. favrite fd D. favrite places
B
D yu want t knw abut Jshua and Judy? Here are their daily activities.
Jshua lives n a farm in Pennsylvania, USA. Jshua’s family are Amish. Amish peple live a simple life. Five days a week, Jshua ges t a schl fr Amish children. Jshua smetimes ges t the city with his parents t d sme shpping. When they g t the city, they use a buggy, an ld frm f transprt (交通) because Amish peple dn’t have cars.
Judy lives n a farm in Australia. Her uncle and grandfather als live n the farm. Judy desn’t g t schl because she studies frm hme. Three days a week, she listens t lessns n the radi. She ften watches schl prgrams n TV. “I help feed rabbits and hrses, milk the cws and sheep, watch the ducks and chickens n the farm,” says Judy. “I wrk n the farm fur days a week,” Judy smetimes talks t her teacher n the radi. Her teacher cmes t her huse nce a year t have a lng talk with her.
56. Where des Jshua live?
A. In China. B. In the UK. C. In Australia. D. In America.
57. Hw d Jshua and his family g t the city?
A. B. C. D.
58. What des Judy d three days a week?
A. She wrks n the farm. B. She des sme shpping.
C. She listens t lessns n the radi. D. She watches schl prgrams n TV.
59. What des Judy help d n the farm?
①Feed the chickens ②Milk the sheep ③Feed the hrses
④Watch the ducks ⑤Watch the chickens ⑥Play with the rabbits
A. ①② B. ③④ C. ⑤⑥ D. ①③
60. What wuld be the best title fr the passage?
A. Jshua’s and Judy’s Life B. Jshua’s and Judy’s Schls
C. Jshua’s and Judy’s Cities D. Jshua’s and Judy’s Families
C
I am Chen Fei. I’m thirteen years ld and I’m a student at Xingfu Middle Schl. I live in Wuhan, China.
I have a very busy life. I usually get up at seven ’clck. I have my breakfast at hme and after that I g t schl by bus. Schl starts at 8: 00.
My schl is very big and ld. There are tw flrs in the first building. On the first flr there are 20 classrms and 8 teachers’ ffices. The teachers’ ffices are n the right f the main dr. On the secnd flr there are 10 mre classrms, a library a cmputer rm and s n. The library is between the headmaster’s ffice and the staffrm. The reading bar is next t the cmputer rm. There is als an auditrium. The auditrium can hld (容纳) 1000 students. The gym is in the secnd building.
Classes finish at half past fur and then I get hme. Smetimes I play ftball with my friends befre dinner. I always have dinner with my family at 6 ’clck. After that I help with the dishes and watch TV. I always read befre I g t bed.
61. What des “that” in Paragraph 2 refer t (指的是) ____________.
A. having a busy life B. getting up C. having breakfast D. taking the bus
62. The underlined wrd “auditrium” means” “in Chinese.
A. 体育馆 B. 图书馆 C. 读书吧 D. 礼堂
63. What is Chen Fei’s schl like?
A. Large and ld. B. Big and new.
C. Beautiful and clean. D. Small and mdern.
64. Where is the cmputer rm?
A. Between the headmaster’s ffice and the staffrm.
B. Next t the reading bar.
C. On the right f the main dr.
D. On the first flr.
65. What des Chen Fei always d accrding t (根据) the last paragraph?
A. Play ftball with friends. B. Read befre ging t bed.
C. Have dinner with his family at 7 ’clck. D. Help with the clthes and watch TV.
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题 共 40 分)
六、词与短语填空 (共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
选用下面方框中的词或短语填空。 (注：有两项是多余的)
put up / find / spell / wearing / green / same / time
66. It’s ____________ fr class.
67. I can’t ____________ my new glasses.
68. They like ____________ caps.
69. We ____________ imprtant ntices there.
70. Lin Hai’s favurite clr is ____________.
七、综合填词 (共10分，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
Sme peple like dgs because they can help peple d a lt f things. Sme peple like kalas because they think kalas71_ (be) cute. But I like pigs best f all the _72_ (animal) . Many peple say that pigs are lazy and dirty, 73I’think they are smart and clean. They eat lts f fd and like_74_ (sleep) .
I have _75pig. 76 (He) name is Piggy. He is very big and fat. He is nly ne year id. He ften plays with me when he is free. When he is tired, he ften sleeps 77 the sfa. But it’s OK because he is a clean pig. He _78- (take) a shwer every day. All f my friends like him very much. I ften 79. (meet) my friends with Piggy. Lk! We and Piggy80 (play) tgether happily nw.
D yu like pigs? What’s yur favrite animal? Can yu tell me?
八、书面表达 (共1 大题，满分20分)
假如你是李华，请以”My Family”为题，介绍你们家有多少人，家庭成员分别是谁，你们全家人的相貌及喜好等。请你根据以下提示问题完成短文。
Is yur family big? Hw many peple are there in yur family?
Wh are the peple in yur family? What d yur family lk like?
What d yur family like?
注意：文中不得透露个人真实姓名和学校；词数60-80; 开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
My Family
Hell, everyne! I’m Li Hua. _____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
I lve my family very much!
参考答案
一、听力测试
1-5 CBBAB 6-10 ACBCC 11-15 BABCB 16-20 BABAC 21-25 CABCA
二、语音辨析
26-30 CBABD
三、选择填空
31-35 ABCDA 36-40 CDABC
四、完型填空
41-45 CBACD 46-50 ADBCB
五、阅读理解
51-55 CABCD 56-60 DCCBA 61-65 CDABB
六、词与短语填空
66. time 67. find 68. wearing 69. put up 70. green
七、综合填词
71. are 72. animals 73. but 74. sleeping/t sleep 75. a
76. His 77. n 78. takes 79. meet 80. are playing
八、书面表达
Hell, everyne! I’m Li Hua. I have a big family. There are six peple in my family. They are my grandparents, my parents, my sister and me. My grandfather is very tall and he likes gardening. My grandmther is beautiful. She likes reading. My father is tall, t. He likes playing sprts. My mther has lng black hair and she likes cking delicius fd. My sister has big eyes and she likes animals. I’m nt tall r shrt. I like playing tennis.
I lve my family very much！
2024—2025学年度第一学期部分学校七年级期中质量检测
英语试卷听力录音稿及参考答案
第一节 (共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分)
听下面4个问题，每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选岀最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
Text 1. Gd mrning!
Text 2. What’s that?
Text 3. D yu have a pian?
Text 4. Wh are they?
第二节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
Text 5. W: Jim, whse bks are thse?
M: They are Alice’s.
Text 6. M: Hw ld are yu, Cathy?
W: I’m 13 years ld and my sister is 12.
Text 7. M: Hi, I’m Eln Musk. Nice t meet yu.
W: Hi, I’m Tina Zhang. I’m frm Wuhan, China. Nice t meet yu, t.
Text 8. W: Tm, lk ! A pet dg is ver there. It lks s cute.
M: Yes, Grace. It’s Teng Fei’s dg. He is walking behind the dg.
Text 9. W: What d yu have in yur schlbag?
M: A green ntebk, a white ruler and a purple eraser.
Text 10. M: Anna, I see sme delicius fd n the menu. Which is yur favurite fd?
W: Oh, I dn’t like Beef ndles. I like Map tfu a little. I like Gngba chicken best.
Text 11. W: D yu ften play ftball, Peter?
M: Yes. We play ftball n the sprts field every week.
Text 12. M: Hell, I’m Mike. I’m in Class 1, Grade 7. What class are yu in?
W: Ww, we are in the same class.
第三节 (共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分武资网)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答13至15三个小题。
Text 13
W: Gd afternn, Jack. Hw are yu?
M: Hi, Mary. I’m gd. Thank yu.
W: Let’s play tennis after schl.
M: Sunds gd, but my aunt Lucy and my cusin Helen will cme t my hme t have dinner. S, I’m srry.
M: That’s OK.
听下面一段对话，回答16至18三个小题。
Text 14
M: Hi, Wendy. What’s this?
W: It’s a pht f my family.
M: Hw many peple are there in yur family?
W: There are fur peple in my family. They are my father, my mther, my brther and me.
M: What d yur parents d?
W: My father is a teacher. He teaches math in a middle schl. He likes ging hiking and playing chess in his free time. My mther wrks in a hspital. She likes planting flwers.
M: Ww! Yu have a happy family.
听下面一段对话，回答19至22四个小题。
Text 15
M: Where is yur classrm building？
W: It’s ver there. Can yu see that grey building? That’s ur classrm building. There are 24 classrms in it.
M: Oh, I see. And the sprts field is in frnt f it. It is s beautiful.
W: Yes, it’s really big and I ften d sprts there after class.
M: That’s gd. Is there a library in yur schl?
W: N, there isn’t. But we have a small reading rm.
M: Where d yu have lunch?
W: In the dining hall. It’s behind the classrm building.
M: Yur schl is really nice.
W: Yes, we all lve it.
听下面一段独白，回答23至25三个小题。
Text 16
Hell, I’m Alan Cper. I’m frm the UK. I’m glad t study in China. Chinese peple are very friendly. My schl is full f lve. S I make a lt f gd friends here. Nw, I’ m lking fr a kind girl wh helped me. Yesterday, between classes, I lst a pen in frnt f the Teacher’s Building. It’s a present frm my grandparents. I like it s much that I nearly cry. But this mrning, my headteacher tells me that a girl gives the pen t her. I dn’t knw her, but I’m really thankful fr her.
书面表达评分原则及各档次的给分范围和要求
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为 20 分，按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容、语言和结构三个方面考虑, 具体为:
(1) 对内容提示的覆盖情况以及表达的清楚程度和合理性。
(2) 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性和恰当性。
(3) 上下文语意的逻辑性和连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意:
(1) 词数少于 60 的，酌情给分。
(2) 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3) 书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档次： (17-20 分)
覆盖了所有内容提示，表达清晰、合理；使用了恰当的词汇和语法结构，且基本无错误；上下文语意连贯、逻辑合理。
第四档次： (13-16 分)
覆盖了所有内容提示，表达比较清晰、合理；使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有少量错误，但不影响理解；上下文语意比较连贯、逻辑比较合理。
第三档次： (9-12 分)
覆盖了大部分内容提示，表达基本清楚、合理；使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解；上下文语意基本连贯、逻辑基本合理。
第二档次： (5-8 分)
覆盖了部分内容提示，所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解；上下文语意不够连贯、逻辑不够合理。
第一档次： (1-4 分)
覆盖了少量内容提示，所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构非常单调，错误很多，严重影响理解；上下文语意不连贯、逻辑不合理。My favrite place is the park. It is a very gd place t spend time. My brthers and sisters lve it, t. We usually g there t play tennis when we are free.
Emma, 14
567
My favrite place is the library. I like reading bks. It is usually very quiet there and I can find many kinds f bks. I can learn a lt frm thse bks and reading makes me relaxed.
Daisy, 13
669
I lve t g shpping with my friends. S my favrite place is the shpping mall. I dn’t always buy things, but it is still s fun t g there. And I ften eat Beijing rast duck in the shpping mall.
Ruby, 13
781