浙江省宁波市慈溪实验中学2024-2025学年七年级下学期3月阶段性测试英语试题

这是一份浙江省宁波市慈溪实验中学2024-2025学年七年级下学期3月阶段性测试英语试题，共36页。试卷主要包含了 Why des Ms等内容，欢迎下载使用。
（满分：120分；考试时间：100分钟）
注意事项：请务必在答题卡上答题，在试卷上答题无效。
第一部分 听力理解（共三节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What club is Lily in?
A. The music club. B. The chess club. C. The art club.
2. What is Amy ding nw?
A. Having dinner. B. Cking dinner. C. Using the cmputer.
3. Wh wants a pet dg?
A. Lucy. B. Eric. C. Tm.
4. When is “Schl N Unifrm Day”?
A. On Wednesdays. B. On Thursdays. C. On Fridays.
5. What rule des Lisa have at hme?
A. N eating befre hmewrk.
B. N watching TV n weekdays.
C. N watching TV befre hmewrk.
第二节（共5小题，每小题 1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面2段较长对话，每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. Hw ld is Rick's sister?
A. 14 mnths ld. B. 15 mnths ld. C. 16 mnths ld.
7. Why des Ms. Clark think the girl is smart?
A. Because she can walk.
B. Because she can speak.
C. Because she can swim.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第 8至第10三个小题。
8. Wh likes pandas best?
A. David. B. Jane. C. Mlly.
9. What time is the elephant shw?
A. At 3 p. m. B. At 4p. m. C. At 5p. m.
10. Where d they want t g first?
A. The Tiger Huse. B. The Panda Huse. C. The Elephant Huse.
第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
11. Why isn't Tm happy these days?
A. Because he has t get up early.
B. Because he has t d the dishes.
C. Because there are t many rules in his family.
12. When des Tm have t g t bed?
A. At ten 'clck. B. Befre ten 'clck. C. After ten 'clck.
13. What des Tm d after breakfast?
A. He des the dishes. B. He plays basketball. C. He watches TV.
14. Can Tm play basketball after schl?
A. Yes, he can. B. N, he can't. C. Yes, he can't.
15. When can Tm watch TV?
A. On schl nights. B. After breakfast. C. We dn't knw.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Cme and see the Indian elephants and the new tigers frm America. The bears are waiting t meet yu, and the mnkeys frm China are waiting t play with yu. The cute dgs frm Australia are waiting t laugh at yu. The giraffes frm Brazil are waiting t lk dwn n yu.
1. Frm the passage we can guess the animal “giraffe” must be very ______.
A. fatB. lngC. strngD. tall
2. Nw Mr. and Mrs. Smith are in the z with their tw sns—ne is 14 and the ther is 10. Hw much are the tickets tgether?
A. $3.00.B. $4.00.C. $5.00.D. $10.00.
3. Which f the fllwing can we d in the z?
A. Give sme fd t the fish.B. Tuch the mnkey n the head.
C. Thrw things everywhere.D. Keep the z clean.
B
Sme animals sleep in winter because the weather is very cld and it is difficult fr them t find fd. They sleep fr a lng time. This kind f sleep is called hibernatin.
Bears, snakes and frgs hibernate in winter. They eat a lt f fd in autumn and put n fat. They g t sleep in their hles r under the grund. When they wake up in spring, they have lst a lt f weight.
Sme animals sleep fr a shrt time in winter. They are nt afraid f the cld weather. They lk fr fd in winter. Rabbits and squirrels sleep fr a shrt time. They ften wake up t lk fr fd.
4. Sme animals sleep in winter because ______.
A. they are lazyB. they are tired
C. the weather is cld and it is difficult t find fdD. they dn’t like t g ut
5. When sme animals wake up in spring, they ______.
A. are very hungryB. have lst a lt f weight
C. lk very niceD. want t g ut
6 Rabbits and squirrels sleep fr a shrt time in winter because ______.
A. they are nt afraid f the cld weatherB. they dn’t like t sleep fr a lng time
C they dn’t have enugh fdD. they like t play in the snw
7. The passage mainly talks abut ______.
A. hw animals sleepB. why animals sleep in winter
C. when animals sleepD. where animals sleep
C
Abut 70% f ur bdy is water. We can live with n water fr nly abut three days. S yu can see water is really imprtant fr us!
In fact, water helps ur bdies in many ways. First, water keeps us healthy. Like trees and flwers need water t grw, ur bdies need water t wrk well. Next, water is like a cleaner fr ur bdies. It can dust ff ur bdies and keep us healthy. Did yu knw that water als helps us stay cl when we feel ht? Our bdies get ht and sweaty when we play utside r run arund. But drinking water cls us dwn and makes us feel gd. It’s like a great drink n a ht day. Water is als gd fr ur skin. It keeps ur skin sft. S, if we want nice skin, we can drink enugh water.
But hw much water shuld we drink? Fr mst f us eight glasses f water every day may be OK But thse wh live r wrk in warmer places need t drink mre water. That is because they lse mre water than us.
And we have t knw sme rules abut drinking water. After getting up r ne hur befre meals, it is helpful t drink a glass f water. Drink ften befre we feel thirsty. In fact, when we feel thirsty, the bdy is already shrt f water.
Yu see, water is s gd fr us. S, remember t drink enugh water every day t stay healthy!
8. What des the underlined phrase “dust ff” in Paragraph 2 mean?
A. T make smething strng.B. T make smething dirty.
C. T make smething clean.D. T make smething fast.
9. What can we knw frm Paragraphs 3&4?
A. We shuldn’t drink befre we are thirsty.B. Peple in clder places need mre water.
C. It’s helpful fr us t drink water after getting up.D. Everyne shuld drink eight glasses f water a day.
10. Which shws the structure (结构) f the passage?
A. ①/②③④/⑤B. ①②/③④/⑤C. ①②③④/⑤D. ①/②③④⑤
11. What is the best title fr the text?
A. Keep Healthy.B. Water Is Imprtant.
C. Mre Water, Better Skin.D. Rules abut Drinking Water.
D
Eating tgether at hme is mre imprtant than befre. During the day, we are busy wrking r studying. Even when everyne is at hme, we ften d things alne. The nly time we may have t talk with each ther is dinner time.
Tday, peple are busy. They usually eat alne r eat ut tgether. Hwever, a family needs time t enjy dinner tgether at hme. The family meal brings ur family clse t each ther.
When I was yung, I never helped prepare fr dinner. But when I grew up. I ften cked fr my family. The family enjyed it tgether, talking abut hw ur days were ging and making family plans.
▲ . My mther cks delicius and healthy meals. She desn’t eat fast fd. My dad has a garden. We can always have sme fresh vegetables and fruit in summer.
If yu want t get everyne arund the table and have great meal time, dn’t frget t let children be in shpping and prepare fd. These are useful skills fr yung children. They will als be happy abut themselves if they can prepare fr family meals.
Eating tgether at the table is always imprtant fr a family. Fd is delicius with the peple we lve. We can stay clse t each ther, enjy healthy fd and train the skills f cking. It’s als a great time t learn abut family culture.
12. The writer thinks that eating tgether at hme is mre imprtant than befre because ______.
A. it’s a gd time t stay clse
B. we dn’t have much mney t eat ut
C. it’s an easy way t ck well
D. we dn’t have much time t eat ut
13. What des the underlined phrase “grew up” mean?
A. Asked fr smething.B. Gt t knw.
C. Gt lder.D. Was different frm.
14. Which f the fllwing can be put in “▲”?
A. Cking fr yur family is wnderful.
B. Eating tgether at hme can be healthy.
C. Making family plans t eat ut is imprtant.
D Talking abut cnvenience fd can be interesting.
15. Why des the writer write this passage?
A. T give sme ideas n hw t prepare family meals.
B. T ask children t prepare a nice dinner fr their busy parents.
C. T help parents knw why their children dn’t like eating at hme.
D. T tell peple the imprtance f cking and eating tgether at hme.
第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分 10分）
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A—E五个选项中选出正确选项（其中一项是多余选项），将其序号填入1~4小题，并回答第5小题。注意：请将第5小题的答案写在答题纸上非选择题部分的相应位置。
When is the last time yu had fun? Felt truly happy? If yu’re trying nt t be bred in yur life, we’ll ffer yu sme advice n hw t have mre fun.
Find a new hbby. Yu may nt be having as much as yu want because yu feel like yu’re ding the same ld thing day after day. ________ It will nt nly prvide smething t lk frward t in yur daily life, but it will als make yu mre pen t new ideas.
________ Experts (专家) suggest that music helps reduce (减少) stress and imprves yur feelings. Every time yu feel stressed, turn n a sng yu like t reduce yur stress. By ding s, yu will make it a part f yur daily activities which will imprve yur feelings.
Take a trip tgether. Travel is great fr yur health. ________ And try t imprve yur relatin ships with the peple yu travel with. Travel desn’t have t be big. It can be taking a rad trip just a few hurs away.
________ Take the time t enjy a little game frm time t time. Even just playing the game—Rck Paper Scissrs while yu’re at yur desk will make yur study day a little mre fun.
Even busy with yur study, it’s still imprtant t find time fr fun. It makes yur life nt s bring.
16. ________
17. ________
18. ________
19. ________
20. What d yu usually d t have fun? Why? (两个问题答案不少于5词，但不超过15词)
______________________________________________________
第三部分 语音部分（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
选出划线部分读音不同的单词。
21. A. animalB. SaturdayC. whaleD. jacket
22. A. tailB. rainC. brainD. said
23 A. hairB. thereC. hereD. pear
24. A. linsB. tigersC. kalasD. giraffes
25. A. ninthB. uncleC. kindD. nice
第四部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分）
第一节 完形填空（共15 小题，每小题1分，满分 15分）
There are sme imprtant rules t fllw in ur classrm.
First, we must enter the classrm ___26___. Running r shuting is nt allwed. If we are ___27___, the teacher and ther students cannt ___28___ their wrk. During lessns, we shuld ___29___ ur phnes. Using them might ___30___ the class.
We need t ___31___ the teacher’s rules carefully. This helps everyne learn better. Never write r thrw things n the desks. We must ___32___ the classrm equipment. Breaking things is ___33___ and nt allwed.
We can’t eat in the classrm, ___34___. Fd r ___35___ might make the flr dirty. A messy classrm is uncmfrtable fr ___36___.
Always ___37___ the classrm rules. Arriving late ___38___ the bell rings is against the rules. Remember t ___39___ yur classmates plitely. Being rude will make thers feel ___40___.
These rules help us create a safe and happy envirnment. Let’s all fllw the rules!
26. A. quicklyB. quietlyC. ludlyD. slwly
27. A. nisyB. happyC. pliteD. early
28. A. finishB. enjyC. fcus nD. think abut
29. A. wait frB. lk atC. turn ffD. put away
30. A. disturbB. helpC. respectD. understand
31. A. frgetB. fllwC. ignreD. write
32. A. breakB. buyC. careD. clean
33. A. safeB. easyC. awfulD. fun
34. A. tB. alsC. neitherD. either
35. A. drinksB. bksC. fruitD. pencils
36. A. everyneB. smeneC. everythingD. nthing
37. A. changeB. respectC. frgetD. discuss
38. A. befreB. afterC. duringD. withut
39. A. treatB. laughC. blameD. hide
40. A. excitedB. prudC. braveD. unhappy
第二节 词汇运用（共10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。
In a quiet frest, a ___41___ (蛇) named Sam lived peacefully. ___42___ (然而), ne day, Sam nticed that many animals were in ___43___ (危险) because they didn’t fllw the frest rules. Sam, wh was ___44___ (相当) wise, decided t help. He visited the schl where yung animals learned the rules, but he fund that sme students were ___45___ (缺席) frm class. Sam reminded them that the ___46___ (精神) f the frest depended n everyne fllwing the rules. He gave them sme ___47___ (建议), “____48____ (练习) the rules every day, and the frest will stay ___49___ (安全).” The animals listened and prmised t d ___50___ (较好). Frm that day n, the frest became a wnderful place fr everyne.
第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
There are t many rules bth at my schl and at my hme. We must arrive ___51___ schl n time. We can’t eat ___52___ (snack) in class. We can’t talk ludly in class. We must be ___53___ (friend) t ur classmates. We have t listen t the teachers carefully ___54___ answer their questins. We have t hand in ___55___ (we) exercise bks every day n schl days. We must play ball ___56___ (game) after schl fr an hur, because ur teachers think ___57___ (play) sprts is imprtant t us.
At hme, I have t d my hmewrk ___58___ (ne) after schl. I can’t watch TV fr ___59___ lng time because it’s nt gd fr me. My parents let me ____60____ (nt hang) ut with friends n schl nights. I never have fun. What can I d?
第五部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
61. 互联网拉近了人与人之间的距离。李华在网络上阅读了泰国Malee的帖子后，也想写个帖子介绍自己宠物狗Andy。假如你是李华，请用英语写一篇短文，简要介绍一下宠物狗Andy，并谈谈你对他的感情。
注意：（1）短文必须包含所有要点，补充横线上 ▲ 的信息，并适当发挥；
（2）文中不得出现真实的人名和校名；
（3）词数60—90；标题和首句已给出，不计入总词数。
My Favurite Animal
Hi, I am Li Hua and I live in China!____________ _________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________Tickets: Grwn-up: $2.00 Child ver 12: $1.00 Child under 12: Free
Opening time: 9: 00 a. m.—4: 00 p. m.
Attentin:
1. Keep the z clean!
2. D nt tuch, give fd r g near the animals.
A. Listen t music.
B. Play sme games.
C. Stay alne at hme.
D. Get a change f scene (场景).
E. Try a new activity yu lve.
My Favurite Animal
Name:
Age:
2 years ld
Lks:
huge,
beautiful fur,
▲
Persnality:
brave, ▲
Ability:
walk n tw legs,
understand me,
▲
Reasn:
▲
Feeling:
▲