硚口（经开）区2024-2025学年度上学期期末七年级英语试卷（word版含标答）

这是一份硚口（经开）区2024-2025学年度上学期期末七年级英语试卷（word版含标答），共11页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，选择填空，完形填空，阅读理解，完成句子，词与短语填空，综合填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
一、听力测试 (本大题共 30 分，每小题 1 分)
第一节 (共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
请听下面 5 个句子，每个句子后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出与所听
句子内容相符的图画。听完每个句子后，你将有 5 秒钟的作答时间。每个句子仅读一遍。
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第二节 (共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
听下面 5 个问题，每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每个问题后，你都有 5 秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅听一遍。
6. A. It’s blue. B. It’s mine. C. It’s n the chair.
7. A. Mr. Hu. B. Art lessns. C. Gd idea.
8. A. Five hurs. B. Three dllars. C. My sister.
9. A. Sme ndles. B. I dn’t like it. C. It’s 5: 00.
10. A. It’s hers. B. In the classrm. C. It’s n June 15th.
第三节 (共 7 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 7 分)
听下面 7 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅听一遍。
11. What des the wman want t buy?
A. A sweater. B. A dress. C. A pair f shes.
12. What des Bb think f science?
A. It is useful. B. It is difficult. C. It is exciting.
13. What language des the wman like?
A. French. B. Chinese. C. Japanese.
14. What will the wman prbably d?
A. G t the schl. B. Say hi t the man. C. G t the party.
15. What des the wman mean?
A. She likes ranges best. B. She desn’t like apples. C. She eats ranges fr lunch.
16. Hw much des the wman have t pay?
A. 10 dllars. B. 15 dllars. C. 25 dllars.
17. Hw lng will the art festival last?
A. Fr ne day. B. Fr tw days. C. Fr three days.
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第四节 (共 13 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 13 分)
听下面 4 段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，根据所听材料内容，从题中所给的
A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小
题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白听两遍。
听下面一段材料，回答 18-20 题。
18. What are they talking abut?
A. Mary’s lk. B. Mary’s birthday. C. Mary’s hbbies.
19 What des Mary like eating?
A. Fruit. B. Flwers. C. Pumpkin pies.
20. What can we knw frm the dialgue?
A. Mary’s birthday is next mnth. B. Mary hates flwers and bks. C. The speakers are Mary’s friends.
听下面一段材料，回答 21-23 题。
21. What is the garden like?
A. Small. B. Big. C. Beautiful.
22. What clr is Jane’s bedrm?
A. White. B. Blue. C. Pink.
23. What’s the relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Father and daughter. B. Husband and wife. C. Brther and sister.
听下面一段材料，回答 24-26 题。
24. What subject des the wman like best?
A. English. B. Science. C. Chinese.
25. Why des the man like English?
A. Because it’s interesting. B. Because it’s difficult. C. Because it’s useful.
26. What will the wman prbably d?
A. Have a science class. B. See an English mvie. C. Jin the English Crner.
听下面一段材料，回答 27-30 题。
27. Hw many sprts teams are there in the sprts club?
A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur.
28. Why d students jin the sprts club?
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A. T relax themselves, B. T get better skills. C. T make mre friends.
29. When des the art club usually hld activities?
A. On Wednesday. B. On Thursday. C. On Friday.
30. Which club has-the mst students in the schl?
A. The sprts club. B. The music club. C. The art club.
二、选择填空 (共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
从题中所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26. —Hi, there! What club d yu want t jin?
—________. What club d yu have?
A. I’m srry B. Sure C. I have n idea D. That’s nice
27. —Harry, what are yu ding?
—Lily I’m preparing a ________ party fr yu.
—Oh, it’s nt nw!
A. new B. different C. dance D. surprise
28. —Yu like maths, dn’t yu?
—Yes, it’s hard fr me but ________.
A. useful B. difficult C. easy D. bring
29. —This term ur schl has many kinds f clubs t jin.
—That’s why I find it difficult t ________.
A. enjy B. chse C. keep D. answer
30. —Why d yu think English classes are interesting?
—Because we’re asked t ________ stries in English with deskmates.
A. wrk ut B. get ut C. act ut D. give ut
三、完形填空 (共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳
选项。
A
By: Judy Clark n 09/06 7: 54 PM
It’s a great idea t plant a tree fr yur birthday! My birthday is n 28th July. I usually have a ____31____ with
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my friends t celebrate. My mther always makes my favurite chclate cake. Everyne __32____ the “Happy
Birthday” sng, and then I make a ___33____ and blw ut the candles. Next, we ___34____ the cake, and I pen
all my gifts. My father ____35____ my height n the dr every year. It’s fun t lk at the marks later. Next time,
I als want t d smething different. Any gd ideas?
31. A. party B. club C. weekend D. pst
32. A. paints B. discvers C. rises D. sings
33. A. duty B. hbby C. wish D. sale
34. A. chse B. enjy C. finish D. grw
35. A. marks B. sends C. ntices D. starts
B
When Stanley Petit-Martre was 11 years ld, his aunt passed away. He was very ___36____.
____37____ Petit-Martre feels better nw. Once a week, he makes ___38____ with GOGO. GOGO is a
schl prgram (项目). The prgram helps students frget (忘记) ____39____ wrries by playing music.
Chad Bernstein ___40____ fr the prgram. “Many kids cme with a sad face,” said Bernstein. “We’ll help
them ____41____ with big smiles.”
He asks the kids t talk abut their ____42____. Then he teaches them t play music t make them feel better.
Herka Altentur 11, plays the guitar. She is ____43____ t be n the stage (舞 台 ). “I think everyne
____44____ me,” she said. “Smeday I’ll play really ____45___ and nbdy will laugh at me.”
36. A. tired B. sad C. excited D. cld
37 A. But B. S C. Because D. Befre
38. A. dishes B. faces C. mney D. music
39. A. his B. ur C. yur D. their
40. A. wrks B. studies C. learns D. plays
41. A. have B. stand C. leave D. write
42. A. aunts B. wrries C. sngs D. schls
43. A. happy B. glad C. nice D. afraid
44. A. knws abut B. cares abut C. laughs at D. lks at
45. A. well B. fast C. hard D. early
四、阅读理解 (共 15 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 30 分)
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阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
A new year brings new hpes. What exciting things are cming up in 2025? Let’s find ut
tgether!
Winter sprts heat up
Frm February 7 t 14, the 9th Asian Winter Games (亚冬会) will take place in China’s
Harbin. Mre than 2, 000 athletes will take part. They will cmpete in sprts like skating, skiing
and ice hckey.
__________
In Octber 2025, the Palace Museum (故宫) will celebrate its 100th birthday. A new
branch (分院) f the museum will pen t everyne. This new branch sits in Beijing. ‘There,
mre visitrs can enjy the cultural relics (文物) f the Palace Museum.
Value peace all the mre
In 1945, Chinese peple bravely wn the War f Resistance Against Japanese Aggressin
(抗战). It helped bring peace back t the wrld and earned (赢得) China respect frm ther
cuntries. September 3 in the new year will be the 80th anniversary f this great victry.
46. What is the reading abut?
A. The Palace Museum. B. Asian Winter Games.
C. Exciting things in 2025. D. The 80th anniversary.
47. Hw many days will the 9th Asian Winter Games last?
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A. 7. B. 8. C. 10. D. 14.
48. Where is the new branch f the Palace Museum?
A. In Beijing. B. In Shanghai. C. In Guangzhu. D. In Shenzhen.
49. When will be the 80th anniversary f the great victry?
A. July 27th, 1953. B. Octber 1st, 1949.
C. August 15th 1945. D. September 3rd, 2025.
50. What wuld be the best heading fr the secnd piece f news?
A. A great museum B. Enjy mre cultural relics
C. A new interesting place D. The Palace Museum is turning 100!
B
I have many teachers nw and I like them all, but I think I like my English teacher Mary best.
Mary is frm the UK. But she likes China very much. She thinks China is great. She lves Chinese fd. D
yu knw what she likes fr breakfast? Bread and milk? N, she desn’t. She nly has ndles. Ht pt is her
favrite and she always eats it n Saturday and Sunday.
Mary has a daughter and a sn. Her daughter’s name is Ella. Her sn’s name is Mike. They are 8 years ld.
They g t the same schl. They like ht pt, t. They are all in Chngqing nw.
We have English frm Mnday t Friday. S Mary is very busy. But she is always nice and happy. All my
classmates like her and her classes very much. She always plays English games and sings English sngs with us.
When we have questins, we like t ask her fr help. Nw I think I can d well in English because I have the best
English teacher.
51. Fr breakfast, Mary nly has ________.
A. eggs B. bread C. ht pt D. ndles
52. Mary is in ________ nw.
A. the USA B. the UK C. Chngqing D. Wuhan
53. We can infer that ________.
A. Ella and Mike are twins B. Mary can speak Chinese very well
C. Mary’s husband is in China nw D. Mary ges back t the UK every year
54. Frm this passage, we knw ________.
A. Mike and Ella dn’t like ht pt
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B. the writer has English classes frm Mnday t Friday
C. the writer can’t ask Mary fr help because she is very busy
D. Mary’s daughter and sn dn’t g t the same schl
55. The best title can be ________.
A. Mary and I B. My Favrite Teacher
C. Mary’s Family D. Mary, an English Star
C
Sccer and table tennis games always make everyne feel excited. But hw abut climbing ccnut (椰子)
trees? In Nvember, Hainan hsted the 12th Natinal Traditinal Games f Ethnic Minrities (全国少数民族传统
体育运动会). Ccnut tree climbing is a big event (比赛项目) in it.
In Hainan, ccnut trees are everywhere. Fr a lng time, Hainan peple have climbed these trees t pick
ccnuts. Nw, it’s a fun sprt! Athletes (运动员) climb 7-meter r 9-meter ccnut trees. They can use any style
(方式) they like. The gal is t reach the tp and tuch the bell. The fastest climber wins. This year, the winner in
the men’s grup climbed a 9-meter tree in just 6. 188 secnds!
There are als ther fun games like single bamb drifting (独竹漂), swing (荡秋千) and hrse riding. They
cme frm different ethnic grups r regins (地区). They shw different histries, cultures and peple’s lives.
Abut 7, 000 athletes frm all ver China jined the games.
56. When was the 12th Natinal Traditinal Games f Ethnic Minrities?
A. In September. B. In Octber. C. In Nvember. D. In December.
57. Which event can yu see in the picture?
A. Ccnut tree climbing. B. Swing.
C. Single bamb drifting. D. Hrse riding.
58. Hw can athletes win the ccnut tree climbing?
A. The ne can use the mst styles. B. The best ne can play table tennis.
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C. The nly ne t pick the mst ccnuts. D. The fastest ne t tuch the bell n the tp.
59. Which f the fllwing questins des the last paragraph answer?
A. Wh wn the single bamb drifting? B. Hw many athletes jined the games?
C. What rules des hrse riding have? D. What place will hst the 13th games?
60. The main purpse f the games is ________.
A. t chse the athletes fr the Olympics
B. t shw different peple’s daily rutines
C. t celebrate the birthday f the mtherland
D. t shw different culture f ethnic minrities
第二部分 主观题 (共 40 分)
五、完成句子 (共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
61. Can yu and Linda swim? (作否定回答)
N, ________ ________.
62. The ygurt is five yuan a bttle. (对划线部分提问)
________ ________ ________ the ygurt?
63. I brush my teeth and take a shwer befre breakfast. (用 he 替换主语)
He ________ his teeth and ________ a shwer befre breakfast.
64. She’s gd at singing. (改为同义句)
She can ________ ________.
65. Ella 最喜欢的学科是美术。 (翻译为英文)
________ ________ subject is art.
六、词与短语填空 (共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
阅读下面短文，用方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使短文在结构、语意和逻辑上正确。（提示：方框中有两
个单词或短语是多余的）
utside / meaningful / breaks / play / friends / makes /
animals
Starting this fall term, students at primary and middle schls in Beijing have lnger ___66____ between
classes—frm 10 minutes t 15 minutes. Students nw can spend mre time ____67___, s getting clser t
nature ___68____ them healthier and happier.
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Many schls have spaces fr reading, playing the pian and even playing with ____69____, like ducks and
rabbits. Students can play with them r exercise n the playgrund. Sharing mre fun time with their classmates is
exciting and ___70____ fr them.
七、综合填空 (共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
I like vlleyball. I played vlleyball every day last summer. I made it nt the schl team. It is made up f
___71____ (nine) and tenth graders.
___72____ 4:00 pm every day, we put n ur shrts, knee pads (护膝) and shes. We play hard and try t
scre (得分), but we als stp t learn new skills. After abut three and a half ____73____ (hur) f practice, I feel
quite tired. S I usually g t bed early at night.
____74____ (we) first match was n a Saturday. I was wrried at first. But my teammates and practice
___75____ (make) me cnfident (自信的). I tk a deep breath, played hard.
I’m lking frward t my next game.
八、书面表达 (共 1 大题，满分 15 分)
“Time and tide wait fr n man.”这句话常用于表达时间的珍贵，提醒人们要珍惜时间。请你根据以下
内容提示，用英文从在校日常、学科学习等方面谈谈你是如何让每天过得丰富又有意义的。
内容提示：
What d yu usually d n yur schl days?
What can yu learn frm different subjects?
Hw can yu make yur everyday meaningful?
Smething mre abut it.
注意：文中不得透露个人真实信息：篇幅 60 词左右；开头已给出，不计入总词数。
I make gd use f my time t live a mre meaningful life.
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