浙江省杭州市余杭区2022-2023学年上学期期末学业水平测试九年级英语试题(含答案)

余杭区2022学年第一学期期末学业水平测试九年级英语试题

第I卷

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. Where docs Susan probably want to go?

A.To a bank.

B. To a bookstore.

C. To her school.

2. What are the chopsticks made of?

A.Wood.

B. Steel.

C. Bamboo.

3. How does Peter improve his spoken English now?

A. By watching movies.

B. By listening to tapes.

C. By reading English books.

4. What kind of movies does the man like to watch?

A. Documentaries.

B. Action movies.

C.Comedies.

5. Why is Simon so tired today?

A. Because he went camping with his parents yesterday.

B. Because he didn't have enough time to have a sleep last night.

C. Because he kept hearing noises when he was sleeping last night.

第二节（共10小题，每小题2分，满分20分）

听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各小题，每

小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听下面一段对话，回答第6至第8三个小题，

6. When was the great invention invented?

A. In Song Dynasty.

B. In Tang Dynasty.

C. In Han Dynasty.

7. What was it used for?

A. Testing the earthquake.

B. Drinking water.

C. Making tea.

8. Where does the conversation probably take place?

A. In a school.

B. In a library.

C. In a museum.

听下面一段对话，回答第9至第11三个小题。

9. Whose party did Mike attend?

A.Lisa's.

B. Mary's.

C.Cathy's.

10. When did Mike arrive at the party?

A.At 8:30.

B.At 9:00.

C.At 9:30.

11. What kind of clothes was Mike supposed to wear to an outdoor party?

A. A suit and tie.

B. A T-shirt and jeans.

C. A sweater and jeans.

听下面一段独白，回答第12至第15四个小题。

12. How often do students have the laboratory class?

A. Twice a week.

B. Once a week.

C. Three times a week.

13. What is the most important in a laboratory class?

A. To be on time.

B. To be safe.

C. To be tidy.

14. Which of the following is allowed to do in the class?

A. Wearing shorts and dresses.

B. Eating and drinking.

C. Reporting the accidents.

15. How should students sit during COVID time?

A.Take every seat.

B. Take every two seats.

C. Take every three seats.

第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C、D)中选出最佳选项。

For the past 20 years, the Touching China Award has honored people across the country every year. They are people who warm our hearts with their actions. Let's look at three of them. They all have something in common: they make a great difference to the country in their own way.

16. How old was Yang Zhenning when he taught at Tsinghua?

A. 35 years old.        B. 100 years old.

C. 80 years old.        D. 60 years old.

17. Which word can describe Su Bingtian best according to the passage?

A. Lucky.     B. Hard-working.     C. Clever.    D. Active.

18. What do the three people have in common?

A. They were injured seriously during their work.

B. They served the country in their own ways.

C. They made people know more about China.

D. They returned to China when they were needed.

B

A teacher decided to let her class play a game. She told each child in the class to bring along a plastic bag with a few big potatoes. Each potato was given the name of a person that the child hated, so the number of potatoes that a child put in his or her plastic bag depended on the number of people he or she hated.

When the day came, every child brought some potatoes with the names of the people he or she hated. Some had two potatoes, some three while some had up to five potatoes. The teacher then told the children to carry the potatoes in the plastic bag with them wherever they went.

As days passed, the children started to complain because of the unpleasant smell let out by the rotten (腐烂的) potatoes. Besides, those having as many as five potatoes also had to carry heavier bags. After weeks, the children were relieved because the game had finally ended.

The teacher asked, “How did you feel while carrying the potatoes with you these days? " The

children showed their frustrations (沮丧) and started complaining about the trouble they had to go

through having to carry the heavy and smelly potatoes wherever they went.

Then the teacher told them the hidden meaning behind the game. "This is exactly the situation when you carry your hatred for somebody inside your heart. The unpleasant smell of hatred will pollute your heart and you will carry it with you wherever you go. If you cannot stand the smell of rotten potatoes for just a short period of time, can you imagine what it is like to have hatred in your heart for your lifetime?"

19. What did the teacher ask the students to do?

A. To make the potatoes rotten in the bag.

B. To give each potato in the bag a name.

C. To take good care of the potatoes.

D. To get fun from the potato game.

20. Why did some students have five potatoes in their bags?

A. Because they liked potatoes very much.

B. Because they wanted to win the game.

C. Because they had five hated people.

D. Because the bag is right for five potatoes.

21. What does the underlined word "relieved" in Paragraph 3 probably mean?

A. feeling happy because you aren't worried about something

B. feeling upset because you face some difficulties.

C. feeling angry because you can't control something

D. feeling sad because you lost something.

22. What can we learn from the passage?

A. We should eat fresh vegetables instead of rotten ones to stay healthy

B. It's wise to ask the teacher for help in times of difficulties.

C. Playing games can sometimes cause pollution to the environment.

D. Taking a dislike would bring people trouble instead of happiness

C

THE THIRD MONTH OF THE SCHOOL YEAR has now arrived. Have you noticed that when we talk about numbers, we naturally think of the number three?

In some ways, "three" is a number that has magical powers. You might have found that this number is all around us. Everything has a beginning, a middle, and an end. For example, we eat three meals a day. Traffic lights all over the world use three colors: red, yellow, and green. And there is the rule of three. It is an age-old writing skill. According to this rule, things can always become more satisfying to readers if they come in threes. Have you ever noticed how powerful ads use the rule of three to improve their marketing? Just do it. I'm loving it. Coke is it. These famous slogans (标语) are all three words long.

But what is it about the number three that makes it so magical? Well, it is because our brains enjoy thinking in patterns (规律). If there are no patterns, our brains will create them. And three is the smallest number needed to form a pattern. An audience member will usually only remember three things from a speech. Do you want something in your speech to keep in your audience's minds? Put it forward to them in groups of three.

If we properly use the rule of three in our daily lives, we can make many things easier. For example, many people like to add lots of tasks to their to-do lists. Experts, however, suggest they should just make three tasks. These top three tasks should be hard enough to be challenging while still being achievable. And the next time you are making New Year's resolutions, consider listing only three things to work on. The longer your list is, the less likely you are to keep it!

23. How many examples are mentioned in Paragraph 2 to show "three" is all around us?

A. One         B.Two      C.Three       D.Four

24. What's Paragraph 3 mainly about?

A. The reason why the number three is so magical.

B. How to make a speech keep in the audience's mind.

C. The reason why people only remember three things.

D. The ways that number three has magical powers

25. According to the last paragraph, how can we make things easier?

A. Make three tasks as hard as possible.

B. Take three as the lucky number.

C. Have only three resolutions to work on.

D. Create three patterns in our brains.

26. Which of the following should be the best title for the passage?

A.Famous Slogans           B.Magical Threes

C.Small Patterns             D. Achievable Tasks

D

Governments around the world are pushing for an end to plastic straws (吸管) and bags. More and more businesses are changing to paper products. Using paper is considered to be better than plastic. However, it is harmful to the environment, too.

Firstly, paper bags and straws are made from trees. Trees, as you know, are good for the environment. They can slow down climate change. An increase in the use of paper bags can cause more deforestation (毁林).

Secondly, the production of paper things requires more energy and water. About 10 percent more energy and four times as much water is used to produce a paper bag than a plastic one. You might say that we can use recycled paper to save that energy and water. This seems to be a good idea. However, it takes even more energy and water to go through the recycling process (过程) than to make a new paper bag. Products made from recycled paper are also often short-lived.

Furthermore, paper products are heavier than plastic ones. That means they require more fuel to transport. Seven trucks are needed to transport two million paper bags, while only one truck is needed to transport the same number of plastic bags. The increased weight also leads to a larger amount of waste once the bags are thrown away.

Paper products are actually a lose-lose for both the environment and businesses. They are more expensive than plastic products. A paper straw costs about 5 to 12 cents, while a plastic one usually costs only about 2 cents.

The most environment-friendly way is to avoid single-use things altogether. Products like glass water bottles and steel straws can be used over and over again. They are much better than either paper products or plastic products. By increasing the use of these items, you can greatly reduce your throwaway waste and truly make our earth a greener place!

27. What does the underlined word "it"in Paragraph 1 refer to?

A. using plastic straws

B. using plastic bags.

C. using paper products.

D. using single-use things.

28. What does the writer think of the recycled paper?

A. It saves energy and water.

B. It seems not to be a good idea.

C. It is better than single-use paper.

D. It's easy to make by recycling process.

29. What is the writer's main purpose of writing this passage?

A. To introduce the disadvantages of paper products.

B. To call on using products in an environment-friendly way.

C. To compare paper products with plastic products.

D. To explain why paper products are bad for the environment

30. Which of the following shows the structure of the passage? (P=Paragraph)

第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）

阅读下面第31-35题的有关内容。请从A一F选项中选出符合的最佳选项。选项中有一项是多余选项。

Some people believe that humans could live on the planet Mars by the year 2100. Here is what life there could be like.

31.______________

    With the development of technology, by the year 2100, the journey might only take about 20 minutes in spacecraft that travel at the speed of light! However, the spacecraft would travel so fast that the journey to Mars might be quite uncomfortable. Many people would feel ill.

32.______________

Humans cannot survive without water, oxygen or food. So far nobody knows whether there would be enough water or oxygen on Mars. Moreover, scientists are not sure whether plants could

grow on Mars. Food would probably be in the form of pills and would not be so tasty.

33.______________

Gravity could be another problem. The gravity on Mars is only about three-eighths of that on the Earth. People would have to wear boots that are specially designed to prevent themselves from

floating off into space.

34.______________

Compared with life on the Earth, life on Mars would be better in some ways. People would have more space. They might live in houses with huge comfortable rooms. Also, robots would do most of their work so that they could have more time to relax.

35.______________

There would probably be no schools on Mars. Every student would have a computer at home connected to an interplanetary network. They would study at online schools with "e-teachers". The "e-teachers" can help with their schoolwork at any time.

第Ⅱ卷

第三部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分25分）

第一节：完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）

通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。

"I just want a normal birthday party." April told her __36__ as they walk home from school after a day's study. They knew what April meant __37__ April happened to be born on Earth Day, all __38__ birthday parties had an Earth Day theme.

At the age of 7, she was told to __39__ old newspapers and then sell them to buy presents. Last year, at eight, she planted trees and flowers in the park. This year, all she wanted to do was to plan her own __40__ birthday party.

April decided to go to the __41__ with her friends and she was excited that she didn't have to think anything about the __42__.

However, things were quite __43__ as they imagined. When they arrived, they were __44__ because the place was full of rubbish here and there. She couldn't have fun, __45__ this mess out there, even though April wanted a non-Earth Day birthday.

"Can we __46__ the rubbish first and then see animals?"

"Of course!" said her friends.

__47__, they began to collect rubbish. With everyone's effort, it didn't take long. A few __48__ later, April looked at the clean square and __49__. It felt good to do something for the earth.

"Happy Earth Day, everyone." said April. "Now I'm ready for my zoo".

"Happy birthday, April!" shouted her friends.

"Thank you for always celebrating such __50__ birthdays with me."

第二节：（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）

阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。将答案填写在答题纸的相应位置。

We know really well about ourselves. If you __51__ (ask) to describe yourself to someone else, what will you say? It can be difficult to see yourself from the outside, __52__ knowing who you are can help you understand feelings better.

The ability to have a good understanding of our own character is called self-awareness. If you're self-aware, you are able to see yourself __53__(clear). You may also know that you love playing __54__ piano because you do well in it and music makes you happy, or that you like watching TV on your own because it helps you relax.

Knowing what you like or dislike, what you are good at or what you find difficult allows you __55__ (make) better decisions about friendship,schoolwork and so on.You learn to trust __56__ (you) own feelings more and that can build up confidence. Last year, the World Health Organization __57__ (say) that self-awareness is one of the ten important life __58__ (skill) that can help young people live happier, healthier lives. Being self-aware doesn't mean only thinking of yourself. You will better understand other people __59__ understanding your own feelings.

How do you learn to be self-aware? It's a good way to ask questions, but ask yourself questions that start with “__60__” instead of "why". For example, if you don't understand why you keep arguing with a friend, ask yourself what you disagree on instead of why you're arguing. Learning to be more self-aware is a skill and you learn it as you grow. So be brave and try out new things!

第四部分写作（共两节，满分25分）

第一节：单词拼写（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）

根据下列句意及所给的首字母，在答题纸上按照题号写出各单词的正确、完全形式（每空限填

一词)

61. Mother ran to the room the minute she heard the c_____________ of her baby.

62. Whenever I read this boring book, I feel s_____________.

63. Reading a_____________ really helps to improve my English pronunciation.

64. Remember to h_____________ the milk before drinking. It's good for your stomach.

65. All of my classmates attended the party yesterday e_____________ Mia. She caught a bad cold.

66. The sun rises in the e_____________ and sets in the west.

67. My brother p_____________ pop music while I like country music better.

68. Parents would be always p_____________ of everything good their children did.

69. Someone s_____________ my wallet on the bus, and now I couldn't even pay my breakfast!

70. They became national h_____________ for saving people's lives from the big fire.

第二节：书面表达（共1小题，满分15分）

假定你是李平，以下是你在美国的朋友Linda发给你的邮件，请阅读后以电子邮件的形式回复。要求：

1.回复邮件必须包含来信中的所有要点，可适当添加内容让行文通顺、连贯

2.字数不少于80词。

2022学年第一学期期末学业水平测试

九年级英语听力材料及参考答案

英语听力材料

听力考试正式开始。该部分分为第一第二两节。注意，听力部分答题时请先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有一分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题纸上。请看听力部分第一节。

第一节，听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

（停顿5秒；停顿时间打点）

（Text 1）

（停顿10秒；停顿时间打点）

（Text 2）

（停顿10秒；停顿时间打点）

（Text 3）

（停顿10秒；停顿时间打点）

（Text 4）

（停顿10秒；停顿时间打点）

（Text 5）

（停顿5秒；停顿时间打点）

第一节到此结束。第二节，听下面3段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听下面一段对话，回答第6至第8三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。（停15秒）

W: Mike. Look! Over there! That looks so interesting! What is it?

M: Ah, it's a great invention in ancient China.

W: Really? Who invented it?

M: It was invented by Zhang Heng in Han Dynasty.

W: What was it used for at that time? Was it used for drinking water?

M: No, it was used for testing earthquakes.

W: Really? But how?

M: Read this instruction, and you will know everything about it.

W: Wow, it's really amazing!

（停2秒，然后重复，后再停15秒）

听下面一段对话，回答第9至第11三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。 （停15秒）

W: Hi, Mike. I heard you went to your friend Lisa’s party with Cathy yesterday. How was it?

M: Oh, Mary, it was terrible.

W: What happened?

M: Well, I was supposed to arrive at 9 o'clock but I got there half an hour late.

W: Oh, that was not very polite.

M: Yeah, and then when I met Lisa's mom, I shook hands with her.

W: Oh, you were supposed to bow instead.

M: That's right. And I wore a suit and tie.

W: What's wrong with that?

M: Well, it turned out that it was an outdoor party. Everyone out was in a T-shirt and jeans.

W: I guess next time you should ask what you are supposed to wear.

（停2秒，然后重复，后再停15秒）

听下面一段独白，回答第12至第15四个小题。现在，你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。 (停20秒)

Good morning, everyone. Welcome to the class today. The laboratory is a wonderful place, but there are some instructions that you should strictly follow. We have laboratory class twice a week. I expect you to be on time. And as you know, safety comes first in a lab! And remember to keep things tidy. Dress properly and be careful. You mustn't wear shorts or dresses. You shall not eat or drink here. What’s more, any accidents must be reported at once. You should wash your hands before and after class. Oh, don’t forget to take every two seats in the classroom during COVID time. I hope you will enjoy the time in our laboratory. Thank you.

（停2秒, 然后重复，后再停20秒）

现在你有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上.

听力部分到此结束。

参考答案

第一部分  听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）

1～5 BCBAC

第二节（共10小题，每小题2分，满分20分）

6～11  CAC  ACB   12～15 ABCB

第二部分  阅读理解

16-20 CBBBC      21-25 ADCAC       26-30 BCBBA    31-35 CABDE

第三部分  英语知识运用（共两节，满分25分）

第一节（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）

36～40 ABADC   41～45 CDCBB   46～50 ACBDA

第二节  语法填空

51. are asked        52. but        53. clearly        54. the        55. to make

56. your            57. said       58. skills         59. by/after         60. what

第三部分   

第一节  单词拼写

52. cry           62. sleepy         63. aloud          64. heat       65. except
53. east          67. prefers         68. proud         69. stole      70. heroes

第二节  书面表达

Dear Linda,

Everything is fine with me and you can’t imagine how I’ve missed you since then!

I am taller and stronger now because I stick to exercising every day. I also become more confident and dare to make decisions for myself.

As for customs, I think you should pay special attention to table manners here in China. For example, you’re not supposed to start eating first if there are older people at the table. And it’s impolite to talk when you’re eating.

I can’t wait to see you here in Hangzhou. (90词)

                                                             Yours,

                                                         Li Ping

评分原则：

1.按5个档次给分。中档属第三档(9分一7分)。

2.按学生所写内容和所用语言确定档次(内容分和语言分各占一半)。

3.总词数不足40个可在本题总分中扣去1分；如书写整齐美观，可在本题总得分中加1分。

4.本题有一定的开放性，所以只要言之有理，就应给分。

5.内容要点：

(1)合适的开头和结尾（2分）；

(2)描述个人变化，如外貌、性格、爱好等（至少两个方面）（6分）；

(3)介绍中国的习俗，如见面的礼仪、餐桌礼仪等（至少两条）（6分）；

(4)卷面整洁，词数符合要求（1分）。

6.各档次的给分范围和要求：

第五档(很好)：(15一13分)完全完成试题规定的任务。

①信息全。②语言可读性强，语言结构基本正确，有少量错误。

第四档(好)：(12一10分)完全完成试题规定的任务。

①有主要信息。②语言基本正确，有一些错误。

第三档(还好)：(9一7分)基本完成试题规定的任务。

①有主要信息。②语言尚可读，有一些错误，但尚能达意。

第二档(较差)；(6--4分)未能恰当完成试题规定的任务。

 ①信息不全。②只有个别句子可读，语言错误较多，且不能达意。

第一档(差)：(3―1分)未能完成试题规定的任务。

 ①不能表达有关信息。②只有几个有关单词，语言错误很多，不能达意。

注意∶凡不写任何内容、抄袭其他内容、所写内容无法看清者一律给0分。